Here I give my last supporting arguments that Cephas may have been someone other than Peter, despite widespread assumptions and views that go back at least to the time of the New Testament, e.g., John 1:42, where they are explicitly identified as one and the same! But were they?
It’s an intriguing question rarely asked. Below is the final bit of my article on the topic, written for a scholarly audience but obviously with a view toward what non-scholars would be interested in. At the end I provide a summary and draw out the implications.
In the next post I will discuss whether now — all these years later, when I’m older and wiser (or at least older) — I still buy the argument. (!)
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What now of Paul’s other references to Cephas? Here the one thing that cannot be overlooked is that, taken at least on face value, they appear to stand somewhat at odds with what we “know” about Peter’s role in the early Christian church, at least as Paul describes it in Galatians. There Paul states explicitly that Peter was entrusted with the “apostolate to the circumcised,” just as he himself had been given the apostolate to the uncircumcised (Gal 2:8). This must mean that as Paul was committed to evangelizing Gentiles, Peter was committed to evangelizing Jews (whether in Palestine or abroad). This makes Paul’s other references to Cephas curious indeed, if in fact they are to be taken as references to Peter.
Consider first the situation, puzzling as it has proved for interpreters over the ages, that occurred in Antioch: the confrontation of Paul and Cephas. Whatever the precise nature of the dispute, and whether it was Paul or Cephas who got the better of the argument, it is perfectly clear from what Paul tells us that Cephas was in Antioch associating with Christians who had been converted from paganism. Why he was doing so Paul does not say. But in any case it seems to be an unusual thing to do for someone who was dedicated to evangelizing non-Christian Jews. Why is he not in the Jewish mission field rather than among Gentile churches? I doubt whether we will ever have a fully satisfactory answer to the question, but I cannot help but note that if in fact this person is not the one entrusted with the apostolate to the circumcised, there is no problem as to why he is not doing what he had been appointed to do.
Somewhat less persuasive, but nonetheless worthy of note, is Cephas’s possible relationship with the converted pagans who comprised the church in Corinth. Whether Cephas had actually visited Corinth, of course, has been hotly debated. Here it is not necessary to delve into all the problems associated with the party slogans of 1 Corinthians 1:12 and 3:22, “I am of Paul, I am of Apollos, I am of Cephas, I am of Christ.” It is enough to note that of the three Christian leaders mentioned here, two of them, Paul and Apollos, had clearly ministered among these converted pagans. To my mind, there is no compelling reason to doubt that the third had as well. The Corinthians certainly seem to know something about Cephas’s activities. So much can be assumed on the basis of 1 Cor 9:5, in which Paul does not appear to be giving his readers new information about Cephas but rather to be presupposing that they already knew that he was accompanied on his journeys with his wife. Had he made a stop among the Corinthian congregation? If so, it must have been an influential visit, if indeed some members of the congregation are claiming a personal allegiance to him as a leader or teacher over the one who established their church. But if this is the case, it is again puzzling that the one thing Paul says about the ministry of Peter is that it focused on evangelizing non-Christian Jews, while every time he mentions Cephas it is in association with converts from paganism.
Summary:
The tradition that Cephas and Peter were two different persons is both very ancient and remarkably persistent. The tradition is explicitly attested in the early second century, and may well have been derived from our earliest sources for the life and work of the apostles, the NT documents themselves. Using these writings, an early Christian could have concluded that among Jesus’ followers were two with similar epithets: Cephas, one of the pillars of the church in Jerusalem, and the disciple Peter, later an evangelist among the Jews.
What, though, about the historical question: Was Cephas Peter?
I’ll address that question briefly in the next post
None of the witnesses that deal with the issue from the second century down to the Middle Ages can be construed, of course, as primary evidence, one way or the other. But in point of fact there is only one primary witness: the Apostle Paul, the only writer from antiquity whom we know beyond reasonable doubt to have been personally acquainted with Cephas. Paul’s testimony must be construed as prima facie evidence, and cannot be discounted because of what is said in later sources, written by those who did not know Cephas, or by general improbabilities that may seem to attend to the case. And while it may be unfortunate that Paul did not explicitly differentiate between Cephas and Peter, he could hardly have been expected to do so, any more than he could have been expected to state that James, one of the two other Jerusalem ”pillars,” was not the son of Zebedee. All the same, we can no longer afford to overlook the peculiar results of this study. When Paul mentions Cephas, he apparently does not mean Simon Peter, the disciple of Jesus.
The implications of this conclusion will be obvious to anyone who has worked at any length with the NT materials. For those who have not, we can simply mention the following:
1) Paul would not have gone to Jerusalem, three years after his “conversion” (Gal 2:18-20), in order to learn more about the life of Jesus from one of his closest disciples, Peter. Instead, he would have gone to confer with Cephas, a leader of the Jerusalem church, perhaps concerning missionary strategy.
(2) Peter may not have even been present at the Jerusalem conference in which Paul’s Gentile mission was approved and sanctioned (Gal 2:1-10).
(3) No longer would we know if Peter was accompanied by his wife on his missionary journeys (1 Cor 9:5), nor whether he visited Corinth.
(4) The confrontation at Antioch (Gal 2:11-14) would not have been between Peter and Paul, i.e. between Jesus’ closest disciple and his most avid apostle. It would have been between a Jerusalem and a Pauline form of Christianity, pure and simple.
(5) Finally, there would remain no NT evidence of Peter’s presence in Antioch, where tradition ascribes to him the first bishopric.
Bart: “In the next post I will discuss whether now — all these years later, when I’m older and wiser (or at least older) — I still buy the argument. (!)”
You once said that you still hold to this position, or not, on alternating days of the week. So on which day of the week are you going to make this last post???
I’m thinking I”ll write it on one day and then post it then next….
Mark 13:3 As He was sitting on the Mount of Olives opposite the temple, Peter, James, John, and Andrew were questioning Him privately,
Re: Summary #4 – I think that is an excellent point. The “Cephas faction” that Paul fought followed Mosaic law and insisted on circumcision even for the Gentile converts to the new faith. The fact that Peter is so insistent on this is good evidence that Jesus himself never abandoned the tenets of Judaism. Paul wrote his letter to the Galatians because a serious crisis had arisen in the community there over the conflict between the Jewish Christians in Jerusalem (under James and Peter) and Paul’s earlier teaching. Paul tells us that he did not receive any instruction from the disciples in Jerusalem because his gospel from divine revelation was the only true gospel. So the question then is, which trajectory are we seeing here?
Paul complains of those “superlative apostles” who preach a different Jesus than the one that he preached to them (2 Corin. 11:4-6). Paul goes on to characterize them as “false apostles” working for Satan (11:12-15). Were these anti-Christ’s the Judaizers as mentioned in Philippians 3:2-15 who, if they were not Jesus’ disciples, certainly Jewish-Christians in close agreement to the theology of Jesus’ disciples in Jerusalem?
THe normal interpretation of the situation is that these were not Judaizers but those who had been so convinced that a spiritual salvation ahd already occurred for those who believed in Christ and were baptized that they were already experiencing the full benefits of salvation in the here nad now, so that there would not be a future resurrection of the body.
Gal 2:9
“ James, Cephas and John, those esteemed as pillars, gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship when they recognized the grace given to me. They agreed that we should go to the Gentiles, and they to the circumcised.”
“THEY to the Jews”, so Cephas is one of those who “should go …to the Jews.”
Cephas as Peter (if it were two different persons) was an apostle to the Jews.
Question to Bart:
Why do you find it “puzzling that the one thing Paul says about the ministry of Peter is that it focused on evangelizing non-Christian Jews, while every time he mentions Cephas it is in association with converts from paganism.” when both Peter and Cephas were apostles to the Jews?
In any case it would be puzzling for Peter and also for Cephas so this can not be an argument for stating they have to be different persons.
My point is that Peter is said to be spending all his time converting Jews and thus associating with them, not gentiles; Cephas is always mentioned as associating with non-JEws.
“My point is that Peter is said to be spending all his time converting Jews and thus associating with them, not gentiles;…”
Life is more fluid than that. What? Peter NEVER converted or evangelized a Greek all his life? Common sense would say, yes, he likely did.
Gal 2:13 The rest of the Jews joined him in hypocrisy, with the result that even Barnabas was carried away by their hypocrisy.
Please note, the rest of the JEWS joined Cephas in what Paul calls a hypocrisy even BARNABAS joins them.
What were Jews and Barnabas doing eating with gentiles? See Acts 15. If they ate, why should Peter who opened the door to Cornelius not eat?
From your book, The New Testament, 7th edition, pg. 392:
“…but when the representatives of James, that is, Jewish Christians who perhaps continued to keep kosher, came to town, Cephas and his companions realized that they had to decide with whom they were going to eat. They chose not to give offense to their Jewish brothers and sisters and so ate with them.”
This is a reasonable assumption.
“Cephas is always mentioned as associating with non-JEws”
The fact that Cephas is mentioned four times in 1 Cor that not associates him with non-Jews.
Let see all mentions to Cephas in 1 Corinth:
1) 1:12 “I follow Paul , I follow Apollos, I follow Cephas, or I follow Christ.” does not associate Cephas with Cotinth or non-Jews more than Christ himself.
2) 3:22 “no more boasting about men! All things are yours,whether Paul or Apollos or Cephas ” is a reference to 1 Cor 1:12 so again there is no assoc.
3) 9:5 “Don’t we have the right to take a believing wife along with us, as do the other apostles and the Lord’s brothers and Cephas ? ” does not associate Cephas with Cotinth or non-Jews more than “ the other apostles and the Lord’s brothers”
4) 1 Cor 15:5 “and that he appeared to Cephas, and then to the Twelve” , he is listed as the first witness to the resurrection , again that not associates him with Cotinth or non-Jews
This has been a really fascinating series. Personally I find the arguments quite convincing.
Do you think this would affect or have an impact on the tradition of Peter ending up in Rome and being martyred there? Obviously there are some Jews in Rome but it is clearly much more pagan centric. Why would he go there? Is that a possible implication?
Rome had one of the largest Jewish populations in the empire, so I suppose that would be the reason.
Dr Ehrman, if Galatians 2:19 is not referring to the disciple Peter, then is it safe to say that the James mentioned does not refer to Jesus’ brother who Paul mentions meeting in the previous chapter?
And what are your thoughts of him meeting Jesus’ brother? Of all those with a direct connection to Jesus for him to have met, it’s his brother who wasn’t an active follower. Under what circumstances would they have met? Why doesn’t he say more about the meeting? Why would James even be in Jerusalem? Why does he, seemingly, call him an apostle? So many questions on this encounter…
No, I would not say that is a corrollary. James was the main leaader of the Jerusalem church (he must ahve converted after Jesus’ death), and Paul went to jerusalem to confer with the leaders about his mission to the gentiles, and he met him in that context. He doesn’t say more about the meeting becausee he is mentioning it for a specific purpose, of saying when and how long he conferred with the others; he was not mentioning the event in order to give a full description of what actually happened.
Unless Professor Bart pulls a rabbit out of the hat at the eleventh hour (to mix my metaphors 🙂) then Cephas and Peter are *definitely* two separate people.
I find it an able attempt, but the arguments are weak.
Can this be taken to mean that Paul worked potentially with some of the men and all women but Peter worked only with some men?
Do you mean because he tried to convert Jews? No, it woudl have been both men and women.
Cephas and Peter would probably bothhave promoted a law-observant form of christianity while Paul did not, right? If so, then Peter would probably have supported Cephas in the conflict of antioch, right?
1. I assume so 2. Not necessarily. THe law does not say that Jews cannot eat with gentiles; that was an *implication* that some but not all Jews drew.
Dr. Ehrman, thanks for answering, but I was focusing on Paul attending the “uncircumcised”which I thought would include women, and the “circumsized”to not include them.
Ah! I get it now. But the term “the circumcised” referred to JEws both men and women. Weird, I know. BUt then again, historically in ENglish “mankind” (etc.) referred to women as well.
Even if Cephas is a different person than Peter (which I don’t buy into) it seems to me it wouldn’t diminish the split with Paul at all. Even if Cephas is not Peter he is still described as one of the chief witnesses to the Resurrection and in the high leadership of the Jerusalem community. He would almost certainly speak for James in his view of Torah observance. All it does it diminish the embarrassment of having Peter and Paul fall out with each other. But if Cephas is not Peter that in and of itself seriously diminishes Peter’s role in the early church. Peter is off somewhere preaching to Jews while these controversies fester. And he’s not even mentioned by name in the foundational Resurrection creed of 1 Cor 15!
ps Do you ever have your students conduct this debate? Seems like it would be a lot of fun and very educational as well.
Actually, I don’t think I”ve ever mentioned this issue to my students. In part because it’s not a huge debate. I’m not sure I know anyone who agrees with me. 🙂
Maybe I missed something, but in John 1 it says, ‘“You are Simon the son of John; you shall be called Cephas” (which is translated Peter).’ However, this verse doesn’t claim that there is only one Cephas; just that this one came to be known as Peter. In the Gospels there are multiple Johns and Jameses. Why couldn’t there be more than one person named Cephas? In fact, maybe John 1:42 is actually pointing out that THIS particular Cephas is the one who came to be called Peter, to differentiate him from the other Cephas known in the early church by his Semitic name. Or since John was written 30 to 40 years after Paul, maybe the distinction between the two had become blurred over time because of the name overlap.
Fishician, “However, this verse doesn’t claim that there is only one Cephas; just that this one came to be known as Peter. In the Gospels there are multiple Johns and Jameses. Why couldn’t there be more than one person named Cephas?
Another blogger,Richard Fellows, may have answered your query in the Aug.3 post. In short, he emphasized that it would be highly coincidental/unbelievable, that two people with very very rare names like Cephas and Peter, meaning the same thing , would show up as leaders of the church at the same time and place.
Merely suggesting an alternative to your understanding. What is truth ? “There are no facts only interpretations”. Nietzsche
Dr. Ehrman,
I understand that Dale Allison wrote an article against this thesis in response to you. Have you published anywhere, either in a journal or just a blog post or something, a response to his response? I’d be curious what you have to say about his arguments.
I didn’t, because I thought it wsa fine to let the disagreement stand. I’ll be saying something abouty the matter in my final post in the thread.
Wilson, you have the article link? Plis.
The lie of Paul the “Apostle to the Gentiles”
Corinth – The false apostles
2 Cor 11 13-22
“For such men are false apostles ..In fact, you even put up with anyone who enslaves you or exploits you.. Are they Hebrews? So am I. ”
Who were those hebrew “false apostles” that visited Corinth??? Certainly they didn’t know about Paul being the “apostle to the gentiles”. Perhaps they considered Paul a “false apostle”.
Galatia – Some people …
Gal 1:7
“Evidently some people are throwing you into confusion and are trying to pervert the gospel of Christ”
So in the Galatians churches those perverters were preaching, they even said Paul had no links with the Jerusalem church (what? a collection for the saints in Jerusalem? all we know is that he PERSECUTED the saints in Jerusalem!!! )
Philippi – Beware of dogs
“Watch out for those dogs… those mutilators of the flesh”
Paul has to demonstrate to the Phillipans (Phi 4:4-6) he was as Jew as those “dogs ” that evidently didn’t know Paul was appointed “Apostle to the Gentiles ” by James,Cephas and John!
Romans
And those false apostles kept coming until Paul decided to run to Spain … after the collection was raised.
Very late is asking this, but I just thought of it:
How common was “Cephas” as a nickname at the time? If there were lots of Cephases around, it would increase the probability that someone other than Peter might have entered into the story.
It never occurred before. I’ll be talking about that in my final post on the thread.
Hi Dr. Ehrman, has your view on the question of whether Cephas and Peter are two different people changed since your scholarly article was published? In other words, do you now think they are likely one and the same person?
I’ll be discussin that in the final post on the thread, soon to appear.
I am confused — a regular occurrence, I am afraid — about the whole naming scheme for Peter in the NT.
He started out as Simon Barjona (Simeon in Greek or Shim’on in Aramaic, son of Jona) but Christ renamed him Cephas (meaning rock) so he could use this “rock” to build his church. That is a phrase that has always confused me, for decades. But the Greek NT scriptures translate Cephas to Petros and in English, Peter. Was it common for these iron age people to have so many names? Are there any other people named Cephas or was this just a “pet name” given by Christ? Doesn’t Greek also have Kephas? Why use Petros?
This is probably due to the activities reflecting an Aramaic story reported in Greek but studied in English. Hmm…
Ah, right. Barjona wasn’t a name, but an identifier. WHich SImon? THe son of Jonas. Some people did have nicknames. So he had one name (Simon) and one nickname (Rock).
Could you please put together and summarize the following in one blog piece?
1. What is your proposed New Testament chronology of Peter and Cephas?
2. In your proposal, what does John 1:41 mean?
3. What is the list of Church Father references that say Peter and Cephas are two different people?
Given my struggle with moderate dyslexia, this would help me and perhaps others to follow your argument 🙂
I’ve never worked out the chronology and I”ve discussed 2 and 3 explicitly. John thinks Cephas and Peter are teh same person, and he is translating the aramaic name into Greek so his readers will understand who is being referred to. The list of church fathers is long, but that’s the subject of my first post: you can get all the names there.
Oops, I meant John 1:42, but you figured that out. Thank you.
First, let me make sure I understand the translation. If I correctly understand you, “Cephas” is Aramaic and “Peter” is “Greek.” Is that correct?
Second, in the four orthodox Gospels, do all references to Peter refer to Peter? Or do some of the references to Peter refer to Cephas?
Third, in Acts, do all references to Peter (72) refer to Peter? Or do some of the references to Peter refer to Cephas?
Fourth, Galatians refers to both Peter and Cephas. Are these two different people?
Fifth, do the references to Cephas in I Corinthians refer to Cephas?
Answers to these questions will help me to piece this together. Thank you 🙂
Yes. THe view I”ve been mapping out is: The other Gospels do not differentiate between Peter and Cephas either. NOr does Acts. Paul appears to indicate that there are two different persons. WHen he says Peter he means Peter; when he says Cephas he means Cephas. I’ll be explaining in my next post why there are reasons to doubt this view. ANd it’s a good thing there are reasons, since nearly everyone doubts it!
@BDEhrman August 9, 2021 at 8:42 am,
Will you show where you think Cephas should be appearing in the Gospels and Acts? That is part of what I am trying to understand.
Also, last night I realized we need to consider that the Hebraic followers of Christ likely spoke both Aramaic and Greek. Do you agree that they likely spoke both languages?
In this case, Peter could have been called “Cephas” when people spoke Aramaic and called “Peter” when people spoke Greek. Therefore, John 1:42 could correctly refer to Peter.
Next, Cephus might have been so bent on keeping Jewish law that he insisted on being called “Cephus” on all occasions.
Does this sound plausible to you?
Has any scholar proposed the position I outlined above?
I’m not sure what your first question means. As to languages: people living in Judea and Galilee typically had ARamaic as their first language; very few would have been fluent in Greek as well. Throughout the empire Greek was the main language, and very few (outside Judea and Galilee) would have spoken ARamaic.
I know that the resurrection narratives in the Gospel can’t, really, be harmonized with Paul’s list of witnesses. Accepted.
While noting that, I wondered if the name Cephas and Cleopas are as close in Greek as they are in English? I ask (of course) because, interpolation-Mark and Luke both speak of Jesus meeting (after Mary) the two travelers in a disguised form and Luke tells us one of their names was Cleopas. If the names are close in Greek, you could almost see “He appeared first to Cephas” being a translation/copying error. Especially because he goes on a bit about ‘Cephas’ in the letter.
I do understand that all 4 Gospels say the first witness was Mary and that Paul doesn’t mention her at all in his litany.
THey are not etymolotically related, and look very different in Greek (unlike ENglish)
It is not surprising that Paul called the same person “Cephas” and “Peter” in Galatians, because this kind of name switching in common in the NT, as I have explained. Yet another example is fund in the Marys. The early manuscripts (and NA28) oscillate between “Maria” and “Mariam” as the names of the mother of Jesus, the Magdalene, and the sister of Martha. There is no reason to believe that the scribes or the original authors felt the need to be consistent when naming the same person in the same text. I can send you a spreadsheet of the tabulated data on the Marys if you want. Name switching may sound odd to modern ears, but it was not odd for the ancients.
Of course Maria and Mariam are not different in the way that Cephas and Peter are. But why donb’t you give us a few examples so everyone can see what you mean and decide if the data look convinding or not. As to “this kind of name switching” being common in the NT, I can’t think of a single example outside of Galatians, of switching two different names that mean the same thing, in the same breath. Give us some?
Thanks for prompting me to think this through.
You ask for examples of switching of names “that mean the same thing”. Yes, Cephas and Peter mean the same thing, and this makes it easier, not harder, for the audience to realize that the same person is in view.
You also asked for “in the same breath”. There are 19 words between Πετρω in Gal 2:8 and Κηφας in 2:9. In Cicero there are 41 cases of name switching that have fewer intervening words between the two names. What matters is not whether the names are given in the same breath, but whether there is a change of context that could have prompted the name switch. See my earlier comment on the context of 2:7-8.
Approximate average number of switches between Maria Mariam in early manuscripts: 7 for mother of Jesus, 3 for sister of Mary, 4 for the Magdalene.
John(Acts 13:5, 13) Mark(15:39)
Barjesus(Acts 13:6) Elymas(13:8)
Tabitha(Acts 9:36;40) Dorcas(9:36;39)
Peter(Acts 15:7)-Simeon(Acts 15:14)
Jason(Acts 17:5,9)-Aristarchus(19:29; 20:4; 27:2)
Crispus(Acts 18:8)-Sosthenes(18:17)
Sosthenes(1 Cor 1:1)-Crispus(1:14)
Gaius(1 Cor 1:14)-Stephanas(1:16; 16:15,17)
Timothy(2 Cor 1:1,19)-Titus(2:13etc.)
Jesus(various)-Christ(various)
James, Barnabas, Apollos, and Epaphroditus are Paul’s only contemporaries who he names more than once in the same latter without name switching, and he names none of these as much as Cephas-Peter or Titus-Timothy.
Hi Bart,
Of the different branches, denominations, and factions of Christianity around today, Which one would you say most closely resembles the theology and practices of the early church ?
What did the earliest christians think regarding how the NT was inspired? It is strange to me that none of the NT authors (to my knowledge) claim to be being guided by the Holy Spirit as they write. This seems like too important a detail to leave out if you are having such a tangible encounter with God himself… When did Christians start thinking that the books of the NT were inspired, and in what sense did they think that God had inspired them?
I don’t really now of any that closely resumbles the early church, though I know a lot that claim to do so (Southern Baptist, Church of CHrist, Plymouth Brethren, and so on). Christian authors start treating some of the CHristian writings on a par with the OT (therefore inspired) already at the end of teh NT period. 2 Pet. 3:16 refers to Paul’s writings as “Scripture” e.g.. But none of them explains what that means, exactly. By the end of the second century (Irenaeus, Tertullian) you start getting more emphatic statements that these writings contain the world of God….
Epistula Apostolorum
“We, John, Thomas, Peter, Andrew, James, Philip, Batholomew, Matthew, Nathanael, Judas Zelotes, and Cephas, write unto the churches…”
http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t … lorum.html
Apostolic Church-Ordinance
“The names of the Apostles are so listed: John, Matthew, Peter, Andrew, Philip, Simon, James, Nathanael, Thomas, Cephas, Bartholomew and Judas.”
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostolic … -Ordinance
———————–
In these lists, Peter and Cephas are two people, John is listed first, and strangely, there is only one “James”.
Which NT “James” were they most likely referring to?
The son of Zebedee. THese are meant to be lists lf the apostles.
Dr Ehrman,
It is my understanding that the word ‘Cephas’ is the Latin derivative of the Greek word ‘Khepas’, which – in turn – is transliterated from the Aramaic ‘Khepa’, meaning ‘rock’. I believe the copies of Galatians that we have show the word written by Paul is ‘Khepas’. Please correct me if I’m wrong. However, if I am right, why would Paul use the word ‘Cephas’ (Khepas) at all? Surely he knew Aramaic. Unless he is referring to someone actually called ‘Khepas’ (unlikely), Paul should have translated his name to ‘Petros’ right?
Since Paul was writing in Greek, he used the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic name Kephas; that Greek transliteration comes into Latin and then into English as Cephas. Paul didn’t use the Aramaic word because that would require him to write the name using the Aramaic alphabet, which was not the same as the Greek or the Latin (and no one he was writing to would know how to pronounce the word). In any event, I don’t think Paul did know Aramaic. He certainly shows little evidence of knowing it, and as a Greek living in the Diaspora there would have been no reason to learn it or likelihood of doing so.
I am revisiting this thread, and would like to reflect on a thing or two.
On the strangeness of an evangeliser of Jews associating with a Gentile church, I think a modern reader is likely to imagine Antioch as host to some kind of ecumenical Christian gathering, with both Jewish and Gentile branches represented. I imagine Paul would have very much liked the idea of such an event, to present a unified front and celebrate their common cause, but we must remember we are talking about a brand new unorganised religion with first century resources, and there is a limit to what would have been possible even if people wanted to do it! But I am not sure if the whole idea would have been a write-off, or whether some kind of small-scale joint Jewish/Gentile Christian get-together (or at the very least a guest speaker) might have been achievable in the infant church.
I have more reflections, particularly about Galatians and the Antioch conflict, but they can wait.
[Continuing] I have read the Dale Allison rebuttal of your Cephas/Peter argument (which someone in the comments linked to), and I do see some weaknesses. In particular if we grant that the author of Luke/Acts understood Cephas to be Peter (which is surely not in dispute), then the number of independent lines of evidence Dale presents is dramatically reduced.
However, Dale also makes the following point:
6. Paul says that Peter was an “apostle” entrusted with the mission to the circumcision (Gal 2:8). Paul says that Cephas was an “apostle” entrusted with the ministry to the circumcision (Gal 1:18-19; 2:9).
That seems solid to me, basing my reading on the NRSV. In Galatians 2, verses 7-8 state that Peter has a mission to the circumcised, and verse 9, elaborating, states that James, Cephas and John collectively have a mission to the circumcised. So if there is a difficulty explaining what Peter was doing among Gentile churches, that difficulty remains if it was not Peter but Cephas, because the mission of Peter also applies to Cephas (along with James and John). Though the others are not said to be _divinely_ entrusted.
I’m placing my bets on Cephas being Peter. Yes, I’m not an adventurous gambler.
I flip depending on which day of the week it is.
My third and final comment (after which I’ll let you decide which if any merit replies) concerns the Antioch dispute itself. When Paul in Galatians 1:9 curses anyone who proclaims a “different gospel”, it is clear that for him, the views sometimes ascribed to Peter would constitute such a “different gospel”. However, I don’t think it is plausible that Paul means to curse Peter and insult the intelligence of anyone who looks to Peter as an authority. I’ll happily hear out any argument in favour of reading it that way, but I find it very hard to credit and haven’t heard a convincing case yet. For one thing, it would constitute an extraordinary lack of self-awareness on Paul’s part.
Paul takes issue with Peter’s _actions_, but I see no indication that he took issue with Peter’s _teachings_. That strikes me as a crucial distinction.
I will be revisiting the Richard Fellows guest posts in the near future, which will give me occasion to reflect further on this.
Bart, I really do not get it why is this Ancient Greek gramatic Petrus /Petra problem even discussed. Jesus did not know Greek so he must have spoken in Arameic and cluld not have said it in Greek. If there was a play of words it was in Arameic and he said Cephas. It is nice to be scholary through and consider if it works in Ancient Greek but Jesus either have not said it or may have said it in Arameic. Greek sentence is either invented or fairly succesful translation of the Arameic word play – which may bi slightly wrong for the sake of preserving the point. For sure Greek sentence can not be exact Jesus words. I do not understand whats the point discussing that. (May there be two Peter/Cephas or one person).
It’s because Christians are arguing about the meaning of an authoritative *passage* and it was written in Greek; and you’re right, it’s probably because they are unreflectively assuming that the precise words are ones Jesus was speaking. It’s been a long time since I looked at it, but I’m pretty sure that word-play doesn’t work in Aramaic. I’ll have to find out.
Thanks for the answer. The more I think about the surer I am that it is something that was invented later when first churches were forming and insereted in Greek. Maybe the name Peter was first introduced in translations with, so to say, justified wish to greacise name Cephas. It happens in every organisation new leaders have to show their lineage and approval from the initial founder of the movement. Thats why no church will ever dispute this sentence, and denominational scholars are discussing it in this, in my opinion, strangely reason defying way.