My textbook, The New Testament: A Historical Introduction to the Early Christian Writings is now out in its 8th edition, co-authored with my colleague Hugo Mendez. One of my favorite features of the book since I first wrote it in the mid 90s is the use of side-bar “boxes” that deal with issues that are – to me – particularly interesting but not directly related to what I’m talking about in the chapter. As a rule I use these boxes to deal with highly relevant but more “human-interest” kinds of things.
For a long time I’ve thought about the Christian idea that Jesus’s death was a “vicarious atonement” for sins. It’s an unusual view, when you think about it. Why does God need someone else to die for you to forgive what you’ve done? Can’t he just forgive you?
In one of the boxes in the book I point out that Christians were not the first to come up with the idea. Here’s what I say there in a box in my chapter 16.
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The idea that someone would suffer and die to save others, a notion called vicarious suffering, was not invented by the Christians. Prior to Christianity, the notion is found, for example, in a number of stories of Jewish martyrs. Is it possible that these tales affected the ways Christians narrated their stories about Jesus?
In the account of the Maccabean revolt known as 1 Maccabees, we find a Jewish warrior named Eleazar who single-handedly attacks an elephant thought to be bearing the king of Syria, the enemy of God. Eleazar ends up beneath the beast, crushed for his efforts. In the words of the author, “so he gave his life to save his people” (1 Macc 6:44).
A later account of martyrs from the Maccabean period, known as 4 Maccabees, describes in graphic detail the tortures that faithful Jews underwent because they refused to forsake the Law of Moses. The author claims that God accepted their deaths as a sacrifice on behalf of the people of Israel: “Because of them our enemies did not rule over our nation, the tyrant was punished, and the homeland purified—they having become, as it were, a ransom for the sin of our nation. And through the blood of those devout ones and their death as an atoning sacrifice, divine Providence preserved Israel that previously had been mistreated” (4 Macc 17:20–22). In these writings, the death of the faithful martyr brings salvation to others.
Literary portrayals of vicarious suffering can be found in ancient pagan literature as well. One of the most interesting instances occurs in the moving play of Euripides entitled Alcestis. Alcestis is the beautiful wife of Admetus, who is fated to die at a young age. But the god Apollo, who earlier befriended him, has worked out a special arrangement with the Fates: someone else can voluntarily die in his stead. Admetus tries in vain to persuade his parents to undertake the task as a familial duty. As a last resort, Alcestis agrees to perform the deed. After her death, Admetus is understandably stricken by grief, although, perversely enough, he is more upset that people will think badly of him than that he has actually made his wife sacrifice her own life for his. But he is comforted by the god Heracles, who goes down into Hades to rescue Alcestis from the throes of death and brings her back alive to her stricken husband. Euripides’ story is thus about a person who voluntarily dies in someone else’s stead and is then honored by a god who conquers death by raising the victim back to life. Sound familiar?
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Hi Bart,
I have an unrelated question to this post. You make a great point that Exodus 21:22 demonstrates that a fetus is not yet considered a human being, as the punishment of killing the fetus is less than that of killing another human being. My question is, by the same logic, would Exodus 21:20-21 mean that a slave is less than a human being, for the punishment of killing the slave unintentionally (21:21) is less than that of killing another human being?
Thank you
Yes, slaves did not have the full rights of people who were free.
I read Mark Twain’s “Prince and the Pauper” at an early age. I thought the concept of the “whipping boy” was grossly unfair. One person has to pay for what others did. As I began to understand Christian theology, I found the concept of penal substitutionary atonement equally abhorrent.
Ha! Familiar indeed! I would think it would help one understand why the Gospel stories and Epistles were written in Greek, not Hebrew or Aramaic. These days Euripides’ lawyers would sue for copyright infringement.
Well . . . there are very significant differences. First, the Admetus/Alcestis myth is set in the remote past, a time when gods still interacted directly with humans; no member of the original audience (of any tragedy) would think for one moment that such a thing could happen in their own day. Second, Alcestis dies to allow her husband to live a normal life span; her sacrifice is not in any way “redemptive” even for him, let alone for anyone else. It’s analogous to throwing yourself under a bus as you push someone else out of its path; altruistic, but not an “atonement” . Third, both she and he will eventually die. She’s bought him a reprieve, but she has not changed his overall destiny as a mortal. And finally, Heracles “conquers death” in this one case and only this one case. Bringing Alcestis back (if it’s even really her; the end of the play is very ambiguous on that point) doesn’t affect the overall pattern of human mortality in any way whatsoever. It’s a fairy tale about one couple, not a statement of possibility for all humans.
No, but since the prevailing Jewish Messiah myth did not include “him” getting condemned and executed my the Romans, the NT authors, being either Greek or Greek educated Jews, had these myths existing and available to rationalize and explain their beliefs that Jesus was the actual Messiah. A pre-existing plot line to borrow, just as the Genesis and Great Flood myths pre-existed before their becoming a part of Jewish mythology.
Dr. Ehrman,
Very interesting! This reminds me of a question I posed years ago to a preacher and didn’t get any satisfaction. It seems that the prevailing theory about the atonement is “vicarious substitution.” The way I heard it explained is that Christ’s death was a payment to God (the wages of sin is death) on behalf of mankind to satisfy God’s justice. So in essence, God dies to pay a penalty to God to satisfy God’s justice. I don’t think it’s ever spelled out this way in the New Testament, is it?
Then I did some reading and discovered that other theories exist. I read that in the early church, the “ransom theory” was popular, which suggests that Christ paid a ransom price to Satan to win humanity back because of the fall. Is this historically credible? And are there other such theories? And finally, do you have an opinion as to which theory of the atonement is closest to the teachings of the New Testament? Thanks!
Yes there are a number of theories. And yes, the theological view about satisfying God’s justice is not expressed like that anywhere in the NT, but has been inferred by readers. My view is that the oldest Christian understanding was that Jesus was the perfect sacrifice for sins whose death made it unnecessary for other atoning sacrifices to be made in the temple. And so he is a kind of animal sacrifice. Also a problematic view!
Greetings from Fort Smith, AR! I’ve recently become acquainted with Rabbi Tovia Singer’s YouTube channel. His Jewish perspective is most interesting. He paints the entire concept(s) of a mediator and vicarious atonement as both laughable and heretical to Jewish belief and the teachings of Tanakh. THANK YOU for your scholarship and insight. I am a 51-year-old father of four who, upon empty-nesterdom gave myself permission to ask and explore the tough questions. Being close to two years into that journey, you have been a stayed and increasingly influential presence along the way. QUESTION: I wish to enroll in a (secular) graduate program of religious and/or Biblical studies. Due to circumstances, this needs to be done online via distance learning. Can you recommend a program/university that offers the type of scholarship you present in that format? Many thanks for your consideration. And influence. And resources.
Good on ya! Go for it. I don’t know what programs are available online, other than fundamentalist ones (Liberty University etc.). So when you shop around, just make sure you understand where the program is coming from and what the assumptions of its professors will be.
Do you know, btw, about the Biblical Studies Academy we started? It’s not what you’re looking for, but it sounds like it’s just up your alley, with semester long courses on biblical topics (starting in a week or so, an Introduction to the NT by my colleague Hugo Mendez, which is just like what you would get if you attended a university, at oh so much less cost and effort!!)
Thanks for the encouragement. And the reminder. I am familiar with BSA … maybe that’s a great starting point … but it sounds like I’d better hurry! Thanks, again.
I am wondering: Doesn’t the practice of animal sacrifice also reflect an idea of vicarious suffering? Like the scapegoat that it sent into the desert carrying the sins of the people. Or the other various animal sacrifices that are prescribed to make up for transgressions or to restore ritual purity. It seems to me that the underlying idea is that God will be mollified if some living thing is killed for him. Or do the animal sacrifices have a different meaning?
Yes, I’d say so.
And, this was God’s plan all along … to change his relationship with his creations and bring salvation to them from himself. Rather than just forgiving them for sinning, or forgiving himself for creating the sinners..
totally agree with you.
In the OT, God condemned the Israelites
In the NT, he condemns everyone. BTW who agreed to the New Covenant?
The Old Covenant seems to be forced upon the Jews also in Egypt.
ChatGPT:
Who Agreed to the New Covenant?: The New Covenant is initiated by God and is offered to all people, not just the Israelites. While the Israelites were the first to receive the promise, the New Covenant is universal, offered to both Jews & Gentiles. The agreement is not forced; it is available to all who accept it through faith in Jesus Christ. In a way, it’s less about a formal agreement made in a ritualistic manner & more about a personal, voluntary response to God’s grace.
The New Covenant was established through Jesus Christ & is offered to all people, based on faith, grace, and internal transformation through the Holy Spirit.
Thank you Dr Ehrman for another thought provoking post. I had forgotten the Myth of Admetus and Alcestis, which I had learned about at school. Atonement is a difficult Christian doctrine for the reason you suggest. An alternative idea is that the Devil is the one being ‘paid’ by Jesus’s death, which I think owes something to the medieval concept of ‘ransom’. That’s equally problematic as it gives the Devil too much power and status. However, I think that modern theologians tend to sidestep the issue and say that Jesus’s death was a shining example of noble sacrifice and don’t really get too deeply into why he died. Are you planning more posts on this subject?
Not at present. My sense is that modern theologians have a range of explanations, and that the best theologians realize any explanation you give is gonna be problematic!
Would you say the early Jesus followers were shocked and disillusioned by his death and so the atonement for sins idea gave them a way to make sense of it? Where is the earliest mention of his death being an atonement?
Yup, that’s what I think. Their rethinking about his death, though, was driven by their belief he had been raised from the dead. If that wsa so, then clearly he was God’s chosen one. BUt then why would he have to die….
Atonement is mentioned in our earliest Christian author, Paul, in numerous places.
This got me thinking about how Mark’s gospel ends with frightened women saying nothing to anyone. Paul states that Jesus first appeared privately to Peter (probably in Galilee after Peter fled there following Jesus’ arrest). I suspect the Jerusalem church taught that Peter was, not only the first to see Jesus, but the first person to think and say that Jesus had been resurrected. When he told the others they probably didn’t believe him for a while; in fact, Peter’s persistence may be what got everybody else on board with the idea. If, for the early Christians, Peter was the first to think and speak the idea that Jesus was resurrected then that would explain why Mark didn’t have the women say anything to anyone. It was because the women never delivered the message they were supposed to deliver to the disciples. In that case Peter and the other disciples found out about Jesus’ resurrection by surprise. This suggests that Mark, or Mark’s source, made up the whole tomb story and the silent women is a way to make it consistent with the whole idea coming from Peter. How plausible do you think this possibility is?
I don’t think we know what Paul thought about when and where Jesus appeared to Peter. But my sense is that everyone who saw Christ (or believed they did) were taken by surprise. That’s a fairly common theme in the resurrection stories — so much rae they surprised that often they don’t believe it. I don’t know who first started saying the tomb was empty, but my sense is that this was the natural corollary for almost all the early followers of Jesus, including Paul, even when they don’t mention it, since they appear to have believed that Jesus was raised *bodily*, not some other way (that is certainly Paul’s view in 1 Cor. 15)
Hmmm. Well, if the first person who thought they saw Jesus told others, then those others would be less surprised than they would otherwise be if they thought they saw him. You used to believe that the body of Jesus was probably not given a tomb burial and now, it seems, you think he probably was given a tomb burial. Bart, have you changed your mind here? If Jesus wasn’t given a tomb burial, then almost all of the earliest followers of Jesus, including Paul, would believe he was bodily resurrected but not from a tomb. In that case an empty tomb would not be a natural corollary for the earliest followers of Jesus. That may be why Mark has the women saying nothing to anyone. That is why my question to you was about Mark having silent women so he could *INVENT* the tomb part of the story. So now I have two questions: (1) do you think Jesus probably was given a tomb burial? and (2) what do you think of the idea that Mark has the silent women in order to support a tomb burial?
1. No, I think it’s highly unlikely, in particular that he was buried that day. I discuss this in my book How Jesus Became God.
2. Certainly he needed an empty tomb since he doesnt’ have resurrection appearances. But hte silence of the women seems to play a different role in the narrative, involving teh messianic secret and the disciples’ lack of understanding.
I had never thought to connect Christ’s death with the practice of human sacrifice that was common throughout mankind’s history. (A quick Google search revealed experts don’t agree on exactly when and where it began but was common long before Christ). It makes sense, though. What interests me is what was the thought process of all involved? Apparently one common theme is the belief that gods or God are/is angry and need(s) appeasement, but I thought one difference with Christ was his description of God as loving, forgiving and compassionate compared to the angry God of the Old Testament. Maybe not so much?! Per John Skinner in his discussion of ritual matricide (Johns Hopkins Press, 1961), “Prehistoric religion originated as a magical sacrament intended to deny the reality of death.” This is an amazing observation, considering it pre-dated the exact same thesis as laid out by anthropologist Ernest Becker in the Denial of Death (1973), and later validated by hundreds of studies by psychologist Sheldon Solomon et al. culminating in Terror Management Theory.
I would say that the early Christian belief that Jesus was a kind of human sacrifice was not connected (by the Christians who first propounded it) to Jesus’ own teachings. In the book I’m finishing now I argue that in fact the theology of atonment arose almost immediately after Jesus’ death but was precisely contrary to his own teachings of forgiveness (since for him, forgiveness was freely given, it did not require a penalty/payment)
“Alcestis” is an interesting play in all sorts of ways. Greek tragedies were usually performed as trilogies–3 tragedies by one author–followed by a “satyr play,” a comedic burlesque somehow related to the trilogy that had preceded it (and by the same author). They were called “satyr plays” because they included a chorus of satyrs.
“Alcestis” is clearly NOT a satyr play — no satyr chorus—but according to the ancient preface for it (called a “Hypothesis” in Greek) it was performed fourth in its group; it’s relatively short; and it includes clearly comic elements, most notably a scene where Heracles gets drunk. The author of its “Hypothesis” calls it “rather satyrical” — i.e., like a satyr play (btw, the words “satyr” and “satire” are NOT related in any way; “satire” is Latin word and has no connection to satyrs.) So, many scholars of tragedy think that the overall tone and intention of the play is comic, and that we’re supposed to laugh at the presentation of Admetus’ grief, not be amused by it. I’m in that camp myself.
Interesting. Well, I suppose I laugh at a lot of things that aren’t really funny. (I’m thinkin’ politics just now, but ain’t goin’ there….)
Ooops, just noticed a typo — when I wrote “we’re supposed to laugh at the presentation of Admetus’ grief, not be amused by it”, I meant to write “we’re supposed to laugh at the presentation of Admetus’ grief, not be MOVED by it.” Sorry.
AH… That makes better sense. Let’s consider it a scribal corruption of your text.
Did the idea that the death of Jesus was an atonement for sin originate with Paul, e.g., Romans 3:24-25, or did the Disciples or other earlier followers come up with it?
I think the disciples came to believe it as soon as the ycame to think Jesus was raised from the dead. That showed he was God’s favored one, and so they had to find some explanation of why, then, he had to die…
Vicarious suffering is absurd. Humans from the beginning of time have tried to control the deities that seemed to control their lives. Sacrifices were really bribes to try to change the minds the gods, and they were total failures. An all-powerful, all-knowing deity, existing from the beginning of time could not accept a bribe still be all powerful. Humans could not control the lesser deities such as the god of the water-well because water obviously has no deity. Soldiers or those in resistance do not exist to be sacrificial beings; they exist to defeat or defend against an enemy. The idea of an injured all-powerful deity is an oxymoron. Sin cannot injure such a deity. Individual sin and redemption were new concepts in JudeoChristianity and seem to have been defined by Saints Paul and Augustine. “Sin” is the failure to act according to social norms which are designed to cause feelings of guilt and shame. The fear of death is the major reason for religion. The death and resurrection of Jesus probably was the main selling point in the Greek world. The redemption from sin must’ve seemed like a strange concept but was tolerated in those early days.
Do we know what other early Christian non-Pauline groups may have thought of the death of Jesus? Without looking it up, I think J D Crossan talks about the death of Jesus may have been thought of being due to mens’ sin, an inevitable event almost.. but not paying for sin..?
All we have are the NT documents from the period, and atonement is part of the teachings of all the Gospels but Acts, and many of the other books of the NT (1 peter, Hebrews, 1 John, Revelation, etc.) sometimes strongly. Crossan gives an intriguing option, but it has always sounded more like a satisfying modern view (and a view that is certainly more palatable) but not an ancient one….
Thanks. Back to your explaining re stories of vicarious martyrdom in the Jewish literature, eg 1 Maccabees, do we know how strong a thought this was at the time of Jesus? Were some making connections with the Messiah idea at the time, before Jesus? To me as a modern person, even if I thought Christ was God, the idea of vicarious atonement seems a big leap! Or was it simply the most obvious explanation given existing thought? Did gnostics think this and other ‘early christianities’ you mentioned on your podcast? How do we know what Peter and the disciples thought?
So far as we know there weren’t any Jews making a connection between a messiah and a sacrificial atonement. That appears to be a Christian invention. Most gnostic groups, though, did not see jesus death as an atonement.
It seems that the firsts Christians started to relate Jesus crucifixion the day before Passover (as in John) with the Akedah. The Jewish theology made it first when the “Binding of Isaac” ended up with a sacrificial ram. It seems that the date for Passover as in Numbers 9 is coincident with the date cited in the Books of Jubilees when Mastêm proposes to God to proof Abraham given him Isaac in sacrifice (not included in the Bible) . Add +3 days of journey of Abraham to the sacrificial place = 15 days as Passover in Numbers 9
Boldly, R. E. Friedman proposed that in the original E story, Abraham sacrificed Isaac. Later repugnance at the idea of a human sacrifice led the redactor of JE to add the lines in which a ram substitutes Isaac (see also F. Stavrakopoulou T, Fretheim, W. Kosior, M. Bergmann, etc.) as may be implied in Hebrews 11:17-19 (M. Barke) The ram sacrifice by Abraham had lots of Christian interpretations as prefiguring Jesus’ crucifixion as atonement in Patristic material. Does that make any sense to you? (sorry for the extension)
I’m not sure if the actual sacrifice was in E, but I can easily imagine it being one of the versions once told. The early Xns of course wouldn’t have known that, but the scholars you mention know more about this kid of thing that I do. Certainly th eAkedah becomes important in later Xn theology, but usually, I believer, it is because Christ really was sacrificed to fulfill what did not happen to Isaac.
The relation of Isaac’s deliverance and Jesus’ atoning sacrifice is in Meliton de Sardes. Augustine, in The City of God portraying Isaac’s act of carrying the wood as a precursor to Christ carrying the cross to his crucifixion. Also the ram that replaced Isaac symbolized Christ’s role in substitutionary atonement. Augustine connected the ram’s entanglement in the thorns to Christ’s crown of thorns, emphasizing the grace extended through this sacrificial act.
Tertullian noted also the symbolic importance of the wood carried by Isaac, linking it to Christ imagery and fulfilling Isaac’s sacrifice.
The Epistle of Barnabas interpreted Isaac’s near-sacrifice as a direct prefiguration of Christ’s death, emphasizing Jesus’ role in atonement for sin. Isaac’s silent submission mirrored Christ’s voluntary acceptance of his passion and death.
These interpretations illustrate how early Christians re-read the Akedah to align with their understanding of Jesus’ crucifixion as a divine and redemptive act.
All this examples taken by a lecture given by Adolfo Roitman at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BrBTH0xszI8