I begin this thread of posts on “The Apostolic Fathers in a Nutshell”  (see yesterday’s post) with the book of 1 Clement, which was almost certainly the first of these non-canonical proto-orthodox texts to be written.  I will devote several posts to 1 Clement itself: this one will provide a brief overview.

I begin with a fifty-word one-sentence summary:

1 Clement is a letter from the church of Rome to the church of Corinth that objects at length to its recent coup of leadership, urging the rival leaders to yield power back to the duly appointed original elders out of humility and  obedience, for the health of the church.  

Now a fuller exposition.  I have taken this from the Introduction to 1 Clement in my edition, The Apostolic Fathers vol. 1 (Harvard University Press, 2003)

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The “First Letter of Clement” is a misnomer, as no other letter from the author survives:  “Second Clement,” which is not a letter, comes from a different hand (as I will show in my post to come on Second Clement).  Moreover, the present letter does not claim to be written by Clement, who, in fact, is never mentioned in its text.

Overview of the Letter

The letter is addressed by the church of Rome to the church of Corinth, and is written in order to deal with problems that had arisen there.  Although allusions to the situation are found already in chapter 1, its full nature is not made clear until nearly two-thirds of the way into the letter (esp. chs. 42-44, 47).  The church in Corinth had experienced a turnover in leadership, which the author of the letter considered a heinous grab for power by a group of jealous upstarts, who had deposed the ruling group of presbyters and assumed control of the church for themselves.  The letter is a strong “request … for peace and harmony” (63:2), which upbraids the Corinthian church for its disunity, convicts members of the guilty party of the error of their ways, and urges them to return the deposed presbyters to their positions of authority.

It is a very long letter for such a direct purpose, and some critics (Wrede, Knopf) have claimed that its rambling and digressive character indicate that the author forgot his original reason for writing it until near the end.  Other scholars (e.g., Lona, Bowe) have found more intricate and subtle organizing principles in the letter, and have argued that rather than simply deal with the immediate issue head-on, the author has chosen to employ standard rhetorical ploys and extensive illustrations in order to make larger points, that the church of God is to be harmonious and unified, that peace in the church is more important than personal advancement to places of leadership, and that the envy and jealousy that have led to the ecclesiastical coup need to be rooted out.

Scholars have occasionally wrangled, somewhat needlessly, over whether the rhetorical strategies of the letter are better situated in a Jewish or a Hellenistic milieu (Sanders, Beyschlag).  To be sure, the letter’s interest in and commitment to the Jewish Bible is obvious: from beginning to end the author establishes his views by citing the authority of the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Jewish scriptures, used by Hellenistic Jews and Christians alike.   Examples of both exemplary and dishonorable behavior are drawn from narratives of the Old Testament from Cain and Abel onwards, including Abraham, Lot, Lot’s wife, Moses, Rahab, David, Daniel, and so on.  And biblical injunctions, commandments, and prophecies, cited at length throughout the epistle, are among its most obvious and striking features.

The church of Corinth, then, characterized by shameful faction, schism, and disunity is urged to restore harmony by reinstating its presbyters, submitting to their authority, and seeking peace through brotherly love, apart from all envy, jealousy, and strife.

At the same time, the letter as a whole, along with its constituent parts, shows clear familiarity with Hellenistic rhetorical forms. In particular, the letter functions as a kind of “homonoia (= harmony) speech,” a rhetorical form common among Greek and Roman orators for urging peace and harmony in a city-state experiencing internal strife and disruption.  To some extent, then, the church is here conceptualized as a political entity, which needs to function as a harmonious unit in order to fulfill its divinely appointed mission and so do the will of the God who created it.

The notion of “order” is thus of paramount importance to the author, who not only cites Old Testament precedents to make his case (e.g., the orderly sacrifices and liturgical functions assigned to priests and Levites in Scripture, ch. 40) but also mounts a wide range of arguments to show that God is a God of harmony and order, not of factions and strife.  He appeals, for example, to nature as revelatory of God’s orderly handiwork: the sun, moon, and stars were created to function together without disrupting each other’s work, the seasons succeed one another in orderly sequence, the oceans and their tides follow divine strictures on their scope and power (ch. 20).

Moreover, those who disrupt God’s harmonious order will face punishment, if not in this age then after the resurrection, which is sure to occur, as God himself reveals through both mundane and extraordinary facts of nature — from the sequence of  night and day (the night dies, the day arises) to the death and rebirth of the phoenix in a regular 500-year cycle (chs. 24-25).

The church of Corinth, then, characterized by shameful faction, schism, and disunity is urged to restore harmony by reinstating its presbyters, submitting to their authority, and seeking peace through brotherly love, apart from all envy, jealousy, and strife.

In the next post I will deal with the intriguing question of who actually wrote this letter.  It obviously could not have an entire church (100s of authors?).  It is traditionally attributed to the church’s leader/bishop, Clement, thought to have been appointed to his post by the founder of the church in Rome, the apostle Peter.  Was 1 Clement written by the Pope?

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2025-11-03T11:28:08-05:00November 4th, 2025|Early Christian Writings (100-400 CE)|

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21 Comments

  1. Brand3000 November 4, 2025 at 8:46 am

    Dr. Ehrman,

    1 Clem. was written circa 95 CE and references 1 Cor. in chapter 47, are these points correct?

  2. Karlpeeter November 4, 2025 at 9:20 am

    Hello Dr. Bart Ehrman
    So the unforgivable sin is committed by anyone who claims that the power manifest in the life and work of Jesus did not come from the Spirit of God but was from the powers of darkness. But what if now that person who commited it repents then he stopes the sin, so it seems that the unforgivable sin is just unbelief. So christians have even proposed that. What do you think?

    • BDEhrman November 5, 2025 at 3:46 pm

      I think Jesus would say that conversion can be genuine and God will forgive sins, even that one. It’s “unforgivable” only if not reversed. You can get things wrong about God (e.g., in a theological debate about this thing or that) but not about whether Jesus manifests God.

  3. kirbinator5000 November 4, 2025 at 9:46 am

    I’ve long been fascinated by 1 Clement. It’s intriguing that it never made it into the canon. Some Christians argue that this is because it wasn’t written by an apostle, and therefore didn’t qualify. But that reasoning doesn’t quite hold up. After all, no one believes Luke or Hebrews were written by apostles either. They were accepted because their authors were considered close associates of apostles. But if Clement is the same Clement mentioned in Philippians, then his letter should have been eligible for canonization.

    Honestly, if the global church ever decided to recognize 1 Clement as canonical, I wouldn’t object. The prayer at the end is extraordinarily beautiful. One of the most moving pieces of Christian liturgy I’ve read.

    Here’s something I’ve wondered: do you think early Christian writers intended for their works to be considered Scripture? Paul, for example, commends those who received his message not as human speech, but from God.

    As a follow-up, do you think it’s possible that the authors of Hebrews and 1 Clement intentionally left their works anonymous precisely because they weren’t aiming to write Scripture, but simply letters of exhortation? If so, including their names would have been unnecessary because they lacked apostolic authority.

    • BDEhrman November 5, 2025 at 3:48 pm

      The point is that Luke and Hebrews were accepted into scripture precisely because Christians claimed they *were* written by apostles, and most peole didn’t think this Clement was the one mentioned by Paul.

      My view is that none of the authors of the New Testament (along with other ealry Chritsian books) were aiming to write Scripture.

      • kirbinator5000 November 5, 2025 at 4:35 pm

        I didn’t know that about Luke! Did early Christians claim he (Luke) was himself an apostle, or that Luke/Acts was written by someone else who was sent by Jesus?

        • BDEhrman November 10, 2025 at 5:13 pm

          Luke was the companion of Paul (they thought) and so his view was “apostolic”

  4. curtiswolf69 November 4, 2025 at 4:40 pm

    Is there any suggestion that the author’s displeasure with the leadership coup was based wholly or in part on any doctrinal differences with the new leadership?

    • BDEhrman November 5, 2025 at 3:57 pm

      That has often been suggested — well, it used to be often suggested — but there’s nothing in what he says about them that suggests the issue is doctrinal rather than a more straightforward power struggle by a group that wanted to call teh shots. If it were a theological dispute then one might expect to see some kind of refutation of the heretical claims…

  5. R_Gerl November 4, 2025 at 5:50 pm

    Some off topic issues. As you know, Luke omits the walking on water story from the Mark source. From Luke 1, it seems that Luke is correcting the earlier accounts. So, it seems to me that Luke didn’t think this was a valid historical event and that’s why it is omitted. Do you agree? I can’t see any other reason why Luke would omit it since Luke doesn’t have any problem with having very long biographies in Luke and Acts. Same thing with the feeding of the 4000. Luke omits it, I think, because Luke doesn’t consider it to be valid. Perhaps Luke realized that it was a mangled re-telling of the feeding of the 5000. These things suggest that within these early Christian communities there were people who knew that some of the stories were fiction created by the process of Christian story telling. Do you think this is likely? Luke must have had good reasons to think these two stories are false and that makes me wonder what those reasons were. Because it suggests that there was counter information being circulated within Christian circles against a number of the now canonical stories about Jesus.

    • BDEhrman November 5, 2025 at 4:00 pm

      My view is that authors of the Gospels — including Luke — were not engaged in critical history the ways we do and that we assume everyone did in antiquity. They all omitted stories about Jesus — necessarily, I would think, they omitted MOST of the stories they heard about Jesus (if they recorded everything they had heard, surely it would have required books). There are plenty of reasons for authors not to tell stories they’ve heard, even if they believe them to be historical. As to the 4000, it’s a doublet, as you indicate, and often authors remove those.

      • ctdeejay November 5, 2025 at 8:53 pm

        Dr Ehrman, this comment and your response to it bring something to mind. It’s an assumption that a lot of people these days seem (to me!) to make about ancient authors. Specifically, they presume ancient writings constitute what we’d think of as “history” because the ability to write was extremely rare, as were the resources to write, so that anyone who wrote anything must have researched what they wrote and been thoroughly convinced it was 100% true or else they wouldn’t have set it down at all.

        Assuming this is how a lot of folks think (in our time), I assume you’d have encountered it during your career. Is it the case that people think like that? It seems to me they do, but I’m hardly expert enough to know if there’s any basis for believing so. It’s just that I can’t understand why so many people seem to believe every ancient author was some kind of investigative journalist.

        • BDEhrman November 10, 2025 at 5:16 pm

          My sense is that most people who read ancient texts that are describing what happened simply assume …Oh, that’s what happened! Many have the idea that in “oral cultures” stories were not allowed to change. I’m afraid all that’s demonstrably wrong (I deal with it in my book Jesus Before the Gospels), but it’s what most people jsut tend to think….

      • R_Gerl November 6, 2025 at 5:26 pm

        I agree. If they heard lots of stories about Jesus, they probably wouldn’t include most of them in their writings. But in these two cases, Luke isn’t dealing with oral stories but with written ones from Mark. That’s why I’m puzzled by Luke’s editorial choices. The only thing that makes sense to me is that Luke didn’t consider them historical for one or more reasons. I also want to get your thoughts on the son of man issue again. I think there’s good evidence that Jesus didn’t think he himself is the son of man. If the historical Jesus said “The son of man has nowhere to lay his head” then that makes sense given that the son of man would just descend from heaven and, therefore, have no earthly home. Jesus had lots of places to “lay his head”. His home in Nazareth and in any of the homes of the people in his caravan of followers: Peter’s home, Mary Magdalene’s home, etc… Perhaps Jesus was trying to say that the son of man is like the poor in a subtle, or not so subtle, jab against the rich. I’m curious if you agree.

        • BDEhrman November 10, 2025 at 5:34 pm

          I”d say some of the son of man sayings in the Gospels clearly identify Jesus as the son of man (The son of man must go to jerusalem, be rejected, and executed…). I just don’t think that Jesus himself said those things. One of the major tasks of historical Jesus scholarsihpo inolves deciding what he did and did not say, based on what the Gosels report.

          • R_Gerl November 11, 2025 at 11:42 pm

            Absolutely right, I don’t think Jesus said the son of man must be rejected, executed, etc. But it does seem to me that the gist of the teachings of the historic Jesus is captured in the anti-rich sentiment that is everywhere in the New Testament. Paul writing that the Jerusalem Church wanted him to “remember the poor”, Peter setting up the Jerusalem Church commune where everybody shared the money from everybody so there was no poor, a camel can go through the eye of a needle more easily than a rich person can enter the kingdom of God, you cannot serve two masters: money and God, Luke’s rich man in hades etc. And if the New Testament is correct that Jesus only visited small villages and hamlets, i.e. not visiting places where rich people dwelt, then that suggests he probably had contempt for the rich. In light of all that, it seems reasonable that Jesus would say that the very rich people would treat the son of man the same way they treat the poor: not allowing them a place to “lay their heads”. So, I think a case can be made that this saying goes back to Jesus.

    • MartinHughes November 17, 2025 at 3:51 pm

      I think Luke believes in contact between Jesus and the non-Jews – the instruction to approach to the Others came with the formation of the apostolic Church. For M and M the gathering of twelve baskets after the Five Thousand represents the restoration of the twelve tribes of Israel, the gathering of the seven baskets represents the restoration of the seven nations that the Israelites had displaced. For Luke this is an attribution to Jesus of something which, on his theological scheme, would have been premature

  6. brucem November 7, 2025 at 11:19 am

    Dissension in the church in the first century? Yup. Been going on since the beginning and still is. Same as it ever was… same as it ever was.

  7. Cearbhaill November 18, 2025 at 3:41 pm

    The concept of “the elect” has always driven me crazy. I recently came across an article with this title and subtitle: “God’s Elect in the First Epistle of Clement: St. Clement conceives of ‘the elect’ simply as the Christian people as a whole, not specifically as that group which will be saved on the last day.” That quotation summarizes my general take-away, so I won’t elaborate. I give the URL below if you’re interested enough to address my question. The author appears to be an amateur theologian, but his analysis–if viable–certainly makes the use of the term “elect”–in Clement and elsewhere–much more palatable than in its horrifying Calvinist usage. Do you see anything in the Clement letter’s use of that term that justifies a more modest view of “elect” as merely meaning “believers” rather than “those preordained to be saved”?
    Source article: https://www.ncregister.com/blog/god-s-elect-in-the-first-epistle-of-clement

    • BDEhrman November 21, 2025 at 5:35 pm

      Normally in early Christian writings “elect” is simply a way of referring to those among the people of God; the issue of predestination, as we think of it, is never in play.

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