Now that I have summarized the major themes and emphases of 1 Corinthians in the previous post, I can address the more specific questions of authorship, date, and purpose.

1 Corinthians is one of the seven undisputed Pauline letters – which, of course, does not mean that no one has ever disputed its authorship, only that the solid critical consensus is that Paul wrote it.  Its writing style, themes, mode of argumentation, presupposed historical context, theological views, and most everything else cohere well with what we can establish as Pauline, so in this case (unlike letters such as Ephesians or 1 Timothy) there is little reason to doubt its authorial claim.

As is true of all of Paul’s letters (and the ones forged in his name!) 1 Corinthians begins (as did nearly all ancient personal correspondence), with the writer stating his name and indicating to whom he is writing:

Paul, called to be an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, and our brother Sosthenes, To the church of God that is in Corinth (1:1-2).

Paul typically identifies himself in a way that establishes his authority.  In this letter he is writing to make authoritative pronouncements to the Corinthians about how to deal with their problems (many of which they appear not to have seen as problems!).  And so he indicates that he is not a self-authorized but was made Christ’s own apostle (that is, Christ’s human representative speaking on his behalf) by “the will of God.”  It’s a subtle way of saying that “you had best pay attention to what I’m saying here.”

He names his companion as Sosthenes, whom he never mentions elsewhere in his surviving letters; in the account of Paul’s 18-month missionary stay in Corinth provided in Acts 18, Sosthenes is named as a Jewish leader of the synagogue (18:17), and traditionally it was claimed that he was converted by Paul  and became a traveling companion – but Acts says nothing about him converting or accompanying Paul afterward.  So we don’t know who this particular Sosthenes was.

When I say Paul wrote 1 Corinthians it does not completely solve the problem of authorship: there are some places in Paul’s letters where a verse or passage appears to have been added to the letter by a different writer.  I am not referring here to “textual variants” where we have later manuscripts that have additions not found in other manuscripts (as in the last twelve verses of Mark or the woman taken in adultery in John); I am talking about passages that are in ALL our manuscripts but that nonetheless appear not to have been originally there. These are referred to as “interpolations” rather than “textual variants” (since none of the texts/manuscripts are variant!).

In cases of interpolation, a copyist/transcriber would have added the verse/passage BEFORE our surviving manuscripts were produced, so that they all have the word(s) but the original did not.  This, obviously, is difficult to prove, but scholars have long argued that 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 is an interpolation.  Those are the rather notorious verses the sternly warn women to be completely silent in church. If they have questions, they should ask their husbands as home.

Just this past year I devoted an entire post to the passage, showing the argument against Paul himself writing it (see: https://ehrmanblog.org/did-paul-tell-women-to-keep-silent-the-argument-that-1-cor-1434-35-is-an-interpolation/).  I won’t give all the details here, but will just summarize:

  • These verses appear to contradict Paul’s views of women elsewhere, including three chapters earlier where women are allowed to to pray (aloud) in church
  • They interrupt the flow of Paul’s discussion here – he is talking about the gift of prophecy both before and after the verses, they interrupt the subject, and the verse before and the verse after flow quite well without the intervening verses
  • And they appear to be closely modeled on the even more forceful 1 Timothy 2:11-15, a book Paul did not write (though it claims to be written by him.)

The payoff: Paul did write 1 Corinthians, but probably not these two rather commonly cited verses.

In terms of when Paul wrote the letter, it is usually dated to the mid-50s, and it appears to have been written from Ephesus (16:8).  As was his custom, Paul appears to have dictated it (to Sosthenes?  Someone else?), since he indicates at the end that he is writing the greeting in his own hand (16:21)

As to why Paul wrote the letter, our only clear indications come in what he actually says.  For starters, it helps to know his recipients.  Paul speaks of them as principally his own converts when he had originally planted the church in Corinth.  He clearly indicates that they are mainly (almost entirely?) converted pagans (12:2). And he suggests that most of them are from the lower classes (1:26).

Also from the letter we learn that after Paul established the church in Corinth, he moved on to Ephesus to continue his work, and while there he received bad news from two sources.  First, he has heard from “Chloe’s people” that the church has become widely fragmented (1:11).  “Chloe” is a woman’s name; her “people” are generally thought to be her slaves or business associates or possibly family members, who have travelled to Ephesus to carry out her business concerns and met up with Paul.  If this is correct, then she must be one of the wealthy members of the congregation – either in Corinth (her people came from there) or in Ephesus (her people had returned from there).

The disunity, as I indicated in the previous post, was manifest in factions that had developed in the church led by individuals who claimed both to have superior spirituality and to present distinctive understandings of what it meant to be a follower of Christ as promoted by one of the known leaders of the movement: Paul, Cephas (Peter), Apollos (a charismatic preacher from Alexandria, according to Acts 18), or even Jesus (1:12)

Much of the letter, as we have seen, expresses Paul’s deep anxiety about the divisiveness in the church, evident not only in the factions but also in reports of some church members taking others to court (over what we are not told; ch. 6)), disagreements about the role of women (14:34-35 is apparently an interpolation made later, but the discussion of headcoverings in chapter 11 is original), the chaotic worship services involving spiritual one-upman-ship by the hyper-spiritual showing off their facility with most impressive spiritual gifts (tongues; chs. 12, 14), the lack of respect shown to those who are “weaker” in the faith who do not understand that pagan gods actually do not exist and so refuse to eat meat sacrificed to them (chs. 8, 10), etc.

Some scholars have argued that a major part of the problem involves socio-economic discrepancies in the congregation.  Those few who are better educated and wealthier may have a more liberated view of women, may be able to eat and drink more at the weekly meal, may have a more sophisticated view of the pagan gods as not even existing, and gifted with more rhetorical and social skills that allow them to dominate others.  That makes a good deal of sense for most of the problems of divisiveness in the church.

Paul’s other source of information was a letter he received from (some?) church members involving one or more questions of sexual ethics (7:1).  The particular problem was whether it is ever legitimate for a follower of Jesus to have sex, even with a spouse.  Paul deals with the matter directly.  Yes, it is better to devote oneself entirely to one’s Christian faith, given the “impending crisis” (7:26).  Paul appears to be referring to the end of the age with the imminent return of Christ in judgment (as he explains in ch. 15).  There is a lot of work to be done in converting others and preparing for the imminent end!   Who has time for intimacy?!?  But, Paul does concede that sex drives sometimes get in the way of life, and it may be necessary for some to engage in sexual activity.  If so, it is far better to do so in a legitimate way, in marriage.  Or as he memorably puts it:   “It is better to marry than to burn” (with lust? in the afterlife? 7:10).

Other issues of sexual ethics have come up as well, whether in the letter Paul received or through Chole’s people or some other source  These include those Corinthian Christians not seeing a problem with frequenting prostitutes and one of their number sleeping with his step-mother.  Oddly to many readers, the second appears to be the more serious problem for Paul.

Basically, the congregation, from Paul’s perspective, is in a mess, and he is eager for them to amend their ways.   Moreover, he appears to see that many of these problems are rooted in the failure of some of the now-leaders of the church to realize that followers of Christ are not already leading an exalted spiritual existence and that salvation has come to them in its fullness, in their spirits.  This world is still a place of pain and sin, and the “saints” need to remove themselves from the power-struggles and immoral desires of this age, to anticipate the imminent end of the world as they know it, and to keep their bodies pure – both the body of Christ, the church, and their individual bodies as members of it.

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2025-04-08T10:53:53-04:00April 6th, 2025|Paul and His Letters|

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30 Comments

  1. Ryzzer April 7, 2025 at 1:36 am

    If Paul had been expecting the “imminent end” for no less than twenty years by the time he wrote the letter, when did he think it would come?

  2. Michealjones712 April 7, 2025 at 1:48 am

    Do you think 1 Cor 15 is interpolated as Robert Price suggests?

    • BDEhrman April 11, 2025 at 2:50 pm

      No, I don’t know a piece of evidence for it.

  3. DharmaWalker April 7, 2025 at 6:26 am

    Given how many issues Paul addresses in 1 Corinthians—like divisions in the church, sexual ethics, and the resurrection—do scholars think all of that came from the Corinthians’ letter? Or does it seem like Paul was also bringing up things on his own, based on what he heard from others?

    • BDEhrman April 11, 2025 at 2:58 pm

      He indicates he heard about the divisions etc. from Chloe’s people .

  4. jhague April 7, 2025 at 10:28 am

    “As was his custom, Paul appears to have dictated it…”

    Why was dictating letters his custom? It seems like it may be related to how when he did write, it was in large letters.

    • BDEhrman April 11, 2025 at 2:52 pm

      It was a widespread custom, since most people were not able to write (that is, put pen to paper) quickly or well (just as today some of us are forgetting how to write cursive!)

  5. Dennisjs45 April 7, 2025 at 7:58 pm

    How do you approach people who have heard the stories by church people that this or that happened, but the facts are entirely wrong. They simply refuse to hear that the versions they know so well are not correct. For example Jesus was born on Passover, 1 AD.

    • BDEhrman April 11, 2025 at 2:59 pm

      I listen to their views and try to have a civil discussoin about it. If they aren’t interestedin hearing alternatives, there’s no point talking with them about it. Better to talk about basketball or your summer vacation plans!

  6. DharmaWalker April 7, 2025 at 9:23 pm

    Hi Dr. Ehrman,

    I’ve long admired the blog’s mission to make scholarship accessible to all. The sales-driven tone and VIP-style tiers, though, feel out of step—they distract from the generous, thoughtful spirit that makes this community so meaningful.

    Would you consider a simpler model—one full-access membership, with optional donations for those who want to give more? It could better reflect the shared values at the heart of the blog.

    With deep respect and appreciation,
    Wes Payne

    • BDEhrman April 11, 2025 at 3:05 pm

      I appreciate teh concern and absolutely don’t want this to be elitist. We started the way you proposeyears ago, and found that we could not raise nearly as much money. The whole point is not to be slick, but to provide funds for charities dealing with hunger and homelessnes and disaster relief. The tiers help us ENORMOUSLY to that end. But for a very small fee (just over 50 cents a week) someone can join and get every blog post I do and have access to archives going back 13 years; and if anyone can’t afford that, we provide it to them for free. That’s about as much as we can do without significantly lowering the amounts we distribute to these good causes. But thanks, I really do appreciate the feedback.

  7. IOguy April 8, 2025 at 10:38 am

    You said “He clearly indicates that they are mainly (almost entirely?) converted pagans (12:2). “.. Either you’re being selective, or you’ve missed an important clue as to who Paul believed his Corinthian audience was.

    Paul addresses his Corinthian audience as “brethren”, and that they shared the same ‘fathers’. Throughout the entire bible, only Israelites were referred to as “brethren”.

    (1Co 10:1) For I do not want you to be unaware, brethren, that our fathers were all under the cloud, and all passed through the sea,
    (1Co 10:2) and all were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea

    Evidently, Paul believed that the ancestors of his audience in Corinth were those who were with Moses when, as the story goes, they followed him out of Egypt and were with him when he parted the sea. In other words, Paul believed they were descendants of the tribes of Israel who were dispersed among the nations.

    • BDEhrman April 11, 2025 at 3:11 pm

      Paul saw all followers of Jesus as descendants of Abraham and so of the Israelites. These in Corinth were ones he converted out of pagan religions

      • IOguy April 11, 2025 at 3:47 pm

        Yes, but WHY did he convert them? Here’s a clue. He often quoted from OT passages that pertained to the restoration of the tribes of Israel.

        Gentiles who converted to Christianity were (or as Paul believed) descendants of the tribes of Israel who had been dispersed among the nations and had adopted pagan religions and traditions.

  8. kirbinator5000 April 8, 2025 at 2:20 pm

    I vaguely remember hearing that some ancient manuscripts of 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 have varying placements within the chapter, suggesting that the passage may have been relocated from the margins to the main text. If this is the case, would it be accurate to describe this passage as a “textual variant” rather than an interpolation?

    Furthermore, Craig Keener presents a compelling argument that this passage, as well as the one in 1 Timothy, addresses specific situations rather than women in general. It’s possible that certain women, such as wealthy widows, were causing problems in the church, and the solution was to remove them from leadership positions as a way to address the issue. The author’s use of the term “women” may have been a way to maintain decorum and avoid directly naming the individuals involved. Do you find this interpretation of the passages in 1 Corinthians and 1 Timothy to be a plausible explanation, or do you believe that the individual(s) who included these passages intended to establish a universal and timeless prohibition on women holding authority over men in all churches?

    • BDEhrman April 11, 2025 at 3:18 pm

      Yes, I talk about that in the post (or maybe one to come!); the verses are placed after v. 40 in some mss, and so some have argued they were originally a marginal note inserted in different spots as seemed plausible, making them a variant. But their *existence* is not a variant since they are in all th emss. Yes, Keener is not the first to argue this; but it’s certainly not what the passages say and it is not a natural way to read them. No one *would* read them that way if they didn’t have a problem with what they were actually saying! Esp. 1 Tim. ALL women descend from Eve, for this writer, not some of the widows… The author is talking about every woman. I think this kind of interpretation really is a case of special pleading to make the passages not seem so bad as, well, they seem.

  9. charliehdz April 10, 2025 at 9:00 am

    From where did the concept of sexual purity originate, as per Paul’s teachings? Was it influenced by a Jewish mandate or did it originate from another source in ancient times?

    • BDEhrman April 15, 2025 at 6:19 pm

      In Paul’s case it derived from his apocalyptic context: the end is coming soon and there is no reason to be involved sexually, since it detracts from spiritual concerns to emphasize worldly pleasures that will soon be of no relevance. It is more important to spread/work for the gospel. Only later did Christians come to think of sex as inherently problematic (as opposed to situationally problematic, i.e. Paul’s view)

  10. AngeloB April 11, 2025 at 12:10 am

    When Paul sees himself as the servant of Isaiah 42, are there any early church fathers who agree with him?

    • BDEhrman April 15, 2025 at 6:27 pm

      Not that I’m aware of. They all thought Jesus was.

      • AngeloB April 16, 2025 at 7:12 pm

        Looks like Paul was the outlier

  11. pommylee April 11, 2025 at 8:25 am

    Speaking of Pauls gender fixations in Corinthians (and elsewhere), since you inspired me to actually read the Bible I couldn’t help but notice Pauls obsession with the fact men should not have long hair. Now I am not religious and have read the Bible front to back only once, but I noticed this, so remembering that Paul saw Jesus, well the risen Jesus, but still Christians believed that Paul had seen Jesus, why did the Renaissance Painters, people much more religious than me, keep painting Jesus in the way?

    We are all used to picturing Jesus as to this day, with this long hippie hairstyle, when surely Paul wouldn’t be railing against men with long hair if Jesus had had long hair, this would be borderline blasphemy
    if Paul was criticising people for having the hairstyle of Christ. Did this issue ever get bought up at the time?
    Why don’t Christians even now bring this up when looking at the common representations of Jesus?
    Am I the only person who even noticed this?
    I find that hard to believe

    • BDEhrman April 15, 2025 at 6:30 pm

      Nope, the issue never came up in antiquity. The problem is not only that we have no early pictures of Jesus but that Paul himself could only imagine what he looked like. But yes, this is something people have long talked about: Hey, why’s Jesus always got long hair if it’s “unnatural” ??

  12. StuartF April 11, 2025 at 11:19 am

    In 1 Cor 5:9, Paul seems to refer to a previous letter he’d written to the Corinthians. You have said before that he may have written hundreds of letters. How did he keep track of these? Did he have copies made and carry around a whole library when he traveled? Did he have summarizes? How were these indexed?

    • BDEhrman April 15, 2025 at 6:34 pm

      They were not actually collected, so far as we know, until the middle of the second century, and then only the few that were still being circulated. We have no evidence of them being collected, summarized, or indexed. My sense is that when a church got a letter from Paul they treated it like we do email: read it, thought about it, threw it out.

      • StuartF April 15, 2025 at 7:03 pm

        Thanks, Prof Ehrman. I was actually wondering how Paul himself could have possibly kept track of all the letters he had written.

        • BDEhrman April 17, 2025 at 11:03 am

          I’m not sure he did. He only mentions one of them (1 Cor. 5:9) and it was one he had recently written. I certainly don’t remember everything I’ve written (even in my books!) — and I often have hard copies!

  13. J.J. April 12, 2025 at 1:25 am

    Any thoughts on the so-called “Christ party” (“I am of Christ”) in 1 Cor 1:12? That has puzzled me for years. It seems to be the position that Paul would advocate, but it’s worded with “de” in a way that doesn’t promote “Christ” over Paul, Apollos, or Cephas.

    And what’s really curious to me is that in the salutation, he calls the recipients the church “of God” (same grammatical phrase), and does so only in 1 and 2 Cor of all the salutations of Paul’s letters. So “of God” in 1 Cor 1:2 seems to be anticipating the issue in 1:12, “of Paul” and “of Apollos” and “of Cephas.” “I am of Christ” is baffling.

    Also, any thoughts on “baptism for the dead” in 1 Cor 15:29? Whatever the practice, Paul uses it to say the Corinthians shouldn’t have rejected the idea of a future resurrection. But what were the Corinthians doing?

    • BDEhrman April 15, 2025 at 7:01 pm

      Thanks for the softballs… I don’t really know on either count. I’ve always thought 1:12 was just a matter of one-upmanship: you follow one of *those* guys? I belong to *Christ*!! But if the suggestion is that they (members of each group) were baptized by someone with a close connection with one or the others of these (as suggested in teh context), or by the person themselves (Cephas, Apollos, Paul), and it turns out – as Paul says — he didn’t actualy baptize (m)any of them, maybe some are claiming to have been baptized by Jesus (or by someone else who was)? But if Jesus did baptize anyone, surely Cephas would have been known to be one of them… So who knows? On baptism for the dead: God knows!

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