Loading...Now that I have given an overview of the major themes and emphases of 1 Thessalonians, I can say a few more things about what we know about its authorship, when it was written, and why.
The book, of course, is always called “Paul’s” first letter to the Thessalonians but as you’ll notice, the opening verse indicates that it comes from “Paul, Silvanus, and Timothy.” And throughout the letter the first-person plural pronoun predominates “WE give thanks” “WE know” “OUR visit” and so on.
So, was this a letter written by committee? If so…how does that work exactly?
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Thank you Dr Ehrman. I particularly liked the discussion of possible joint authorship. I know that you have more or less answered this question but could Joint authorship affect the argument that Paul’s undisputed letters display a particular style of writing which is not reflected in the Deutero-Pauline and the pastoral epistles?
I don’t think so. When Paul names others as senders of the letters, he appears to mean that they are his companions at the time, but that he is doing the actual writing.
But what is it about the letter that makes scholars think it is the earliest surviving Pauline letter? What would be different about it if it were written after Galatians or Philippians?
Thanks.
It has to do with situationg all the letters in the overall chronology of Paul’s life, where he went when and did what when and … etc. Fro the letters it is sometimes possible to evaluate how long it’s been since Paul was with the community, and sometimes he indicagtes time gaps (“after three years”…). So it’s all tied up in issues of overall Pauline chronology. Which is not an easy topic!
Dr Ehrman,
Would you say that Paul’s persecution of Christians was probably Jews who were attracted to Jesus teachings or pagans who were attracted. Would the term Christ carry more weight with Jews or pagans?
Pagans wouldn’t know what the term meant.
This blog has a lot of awfully good information in it. Thank you, Professor.
I think you quoted it in yall’s last Mis-Quoting Jesus.
Blogs like this are one of (the many) reasons I read them religiously
Question, but first a comment: This letter is probably one of the underappreciated letters. Now, do you think that the opposition they faced is something like what Paula Frederickson talks about in her book, *Ancient Christianity*? She explains, and I am paraphrasing that the economy and well-being depended on the relationship between humans and gods? If the gods were happy, the people were happy, but abandoning them would upset the gods and therefore cause the community to be upset with those abandoning the gods? So they were being opposed because they were going to upset the gods which would cause trouble for the community. What do you think?
Yup!
Thanks!
The Testament of the Twelve Patriarchs is a set of works that’s been very intriguing for me to study. They seem to be quoted rather often throughout the New Testament, particularly in Paul’s authentic works (though quotes are also found in John, Acts, and James). 1 Thessalonians parallels Levi 6:11, Romans 1:32 parallels Asher 6:2, and 2 Corinthians 7:10 parallels Gad 5:7. R. H. Charles has pointed out several other parallels, but I find them less compelling. Strangely though, the works seem to have fallen out of popularity shortly after the New Testament was written – there’s one possible quote by Tertullian, then only a handful of mentions and possible allusions throughout the next millennium. Do these New Testament quotes suggest a high status (or least, wide dissemination) of these stories in 1st-century Christianity, before the works faded into obscurity? Can we even be confident that the New Testament is quoting these stories rather than the reverse, seeing as the works were supposedly saw Christian modifications in the 2nd century CE?
I haven’t looked at this issue for a long time, and am not near my books just now. But I don’t recall any actual extensive verbal overlaps between NT writings the Testaments, just similar views in places. What are the actual quotations. (My sense is that most NT scholars these days don’t think one source was used by the other). The first place I would turn to check it out is the Introductoin and Translation done (after the days of Charles) in the OT Pseudepigrapha volume edited by James Charlesworth.
Levi 6:11: “And thus they did to all strangers, taking away their wives by force, and they banished them. But the wrath of the Lord came upon them to the uttermost.”
1 Thessalonians 2:16: “Thus they have constantly been filling up the measure of their sins, but wrath has overtaken them at last.”
The “wrath has overtaken them” clause here is the likely parallel, their Greek aligns very closely.
Levi: “ἔφθασε δὲ αὐτοὺς ἡ ὀργὴ τοῦ θεοῦ εἰς τέλος”
Paul: “ἔφθασεν δὲ ἐπ’ αὐτοὺς ἡ ὀργὴ εἰς τέλος”
Asher 6:2: “For they that are double-faced are guilty of a twofold sin; for they both do the evil thing and they have pleasure in them that do it.”
Romans 1:32: “Those who practice such things deserve to die, yet they not only do them but even applaud others who practice them.”
2 Corinthians 7:10: “Godly sorrow brings repentance that leads to salvation and leaves no regret, but worldly sorrow brings death.”
Gad 5:7-8: “For true repentance after a godly sort… leadeth the mind to salvation.”
See also John 1:9 and Levi 14:4, Acts 12:11 and Simeon 2:8, James 4:7 and Naphtali 8:4. James’ use of Naphtali is particularly convincing (to me) due to similar context and their agreement in Greek.
I’d say the second and third examples are not strong indications of literary dependence, since they are similar conceptions that would have been widely held. But htat first one sure is interesting!disabledupes{4b60be326cb23f1204e8b7ff0750cdb1}disabledupes