Good morning Dr Erhman,
I follow your podcast and just recently finished listening to your discussion about the gospel of Luke. I was reading and noticed a footnote in the NRSV about Luke 1:31. It says the Jesus is the Greek version of Joshua meaning “God has Saved”. What would his earliest of disciples have known his name to be? What is the Aramaic form of the name and does this matter for any other reason than tying his lineage back to the Old Testament prophet Joshua or for some other reason?
Thank you
Ryan Snodgrass
Hillsboro Oregon
Just for the record here:
There is no J in the old Hebrew language nor is it in the old Aramaic – except that in the western languages the J was pronounced as a Y so we just pronounce the name inaccurately.
By right Jesus is to be pronounced as Yesus.
Plus there were no vowels and the final s is added for that sound.
The correct name is more accurately as Yesu.
The name became spelled as Jesus by the Holy Roman Empire of Charlemagne circa 814 CE, using the Germanic J which was pronounced as the sound of a Y.
In Aramaic the name of Jesus is Isa as they use an I in place of a Y.
Most people claim that Jesus is from the Hebrew name of Joshua (Yahshua) but that too is not quite accurate because His name was a short version of Yahshua which is Yesu.
Yesu is short for Yeshua but they have a significant different meaning.
The Name Joshua mean Yahweh (the Father) is my salvation.
But the short version means Yahweh (the Father) saves.
As such Jesus name was never meant to say that the Father was the salvation of Jesus but to say that the Father saves humanity through Christ.
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
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