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Anyone watching TV show "A.D. The Bible Continues"?
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Bgipson

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February 17, 2016 - 2:02 pm

maryhelena said 
So……back to mockery….

Back to?

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Bgipson

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February 18, 2016 - 4:44 pm

” To say that just in “this case” it refers to a knife is not playing fair with our evidence.”

 

That’s a bit of an oversimplification, Fredriksen argues,

 

“I would insist that carrying a μάχαιρα was one of the last things that would have gotten a Jewish male arrested at Passover. One man out of every ten-person group (if we can trust the principles of Josephus’s reckoning for Passover) would have done so: 255,600 is  the number that he gives for sheep slain, thus for males sacrificing. μάχαιρα in this context does not mean ‘sword’. It means ‘knife’, specifically the large knife used for slaughtering animals in sacrifice. It translates the Hebrew word תלכאמ,
as at Gen. 22.6 LXX. (Unless we suppose that the Hellenistic Abraham was about to decapitate Isaac, the word there must also mean ‘sacrificial knife’.)”

This is also not being picayune since it is precisely a question of whether these men would be perceived as dangerous. A group of men with swords is definitely out of context; although a group carrying sacrificial daggers might be as well (given that her figure is 1 in 10 men carried one) The difference might be seen this way: A policemen sees me walking down the street with a Butcher’s knife. A policemen walks into a Butcher shop and sees the Butcher holding Butcher’s knife.

 

Was Cicero at Passover?

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Lawyerskeptic

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February 19, 2016 - 7:54 am

spiker said .
 
 Would a backwater messiah rate the governors time? The other question is whether Paul would have been any more significant?  I know there is something out there about Roman citizens having had the right to have themselves heard by the emperor. I don’t know if that is even true or if true, would apply in all cases.

Just a wild guess, but I would think that a provincial governor would not necessarily be too busy to deal with a provincial troublemaker. If we are correct that Jerusalem had 25-35,000 people, the governor might be fairly hands-on. I see nothing inherently unbelievable about Pontius Pilate taking a personal interest in Jesus. Then again, he might’ve preferred to delegate to underlings whether he needed to or not.

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gmatthews

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February 19, 2016 - 9:23 am

Lawyerskeptic said

spiker said .
 
 Would a backwater messiah rate the governors time? The other question is whether Paul would have been any more significant?  I know there is something out there about Roman citizens having had the right to have themselves heard by the emperor. I don’t know if that is even true or if true, would apply in all cases.

Just a wild guess, but I would think that a provincial governor would not necessarily be too busy to deal with a provincial troublemaker. If we are correct that Jerusalem had 25-35,000 people, the governor might be fairly hands-on. I see nothing inherently unbelievable about Pontius Pilate taking a personal interest in Jesus. Then again, he might’ve preferred to delegate to underlings whether he needed to or not.

I’ve been thinking about this lately too.  While on the one hand there is plenty of evidence in colonial America for higher ranking judicial members dealing with quite ordinary cases I have to think we’re considering the Pilate-Jesus dynamic through modern eyes.  In America we’re all equals.  While Roman upper society may have preached primus inter pares I hardly think that extended to who the Greeks would have called “barbarians”, ie “everyone else”.  In other words, Jesus was way too far down the pecking order for Pilate to have even bothered with.  Pilate was based in Caesarea (all Judean prelates were based there) and him being in Jerusalem was a once a year thing.  The Romans wouldn’t have only had trials once a year so surely his presence in Jerusalem was merely ceremonial.  As such, I question whether he even saw Jesus, let alone tried him.

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beautifulmeercat497

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February 19, 2016 - 10:25 am

Greg Matthews said

Lawyerskeptic said

spiker said .
 
 Would a backwater messiah rate the governors time? The other question is whether Paul would have been any more significant?  I know there is something out there about Roman citizens having had the right to have themselves heard by the emperor. I don’t know if that is even true or if true, would apply in all cases.

Just a wild guess, but I would think that a provincial governor would not necessarily be too busy to deal with a provincial troublemaker. If we are correct that Jerusalem had 25-35,000 people, the governor might be fairly hands-on. I see nothing inherently unbelievable about Pontius Pilate taking a personal interest in Jesus. Then again, he might’ve preferred to delegate to underlings whether he needed to or not.

I’ve been thinking about this lately too.  While on the one hand there is plenty of evidence in colonial America for higher ranking judicial members dealing with quite ordinary cases I have to think we’re considering the Pilate-Jesus dynamic through modern eyes.  In America we’re all equals.  While Roman upper society may have preached primus inter pares I hardly think that extended to who the Greeks would have called “barbarians”, ie “everyone else”.  In other words, Jesus was way too far down the pecking order for Pilate to have even bothered with.  Pilate was based in Caesarea (all Judean prelates were based there) and him being in Jerusalem was a once a year thing.  The Romans wouldn’t have only had trials once a year so surely his presence in Jerusalem was merely ceremonial.  As such, I question whether he even saw Jesus, let alone tried him.

Indeed, there is just too many illogical issues within the gospel crucifixion story for it to have been historical. Jesus being ‘too far down the pecking order’  to warrant an appearance before Pilate being just one of those illogical issues. Reading the crucifixion story as a symbolic drama, a re-enactment of an earlier historical event, presents other ways to deal with the illogical issues. For instance: Rome executed seditionists yet words are put into the mouth of Pilate to say that he found no fault with Jesus  –  and allows Jesus to be crucified while the insurrectionist, Barabbas, goes free. Since the gospel Jesus figure can be viewed as being seditionist re the crucifixion story  –  the words put into the mouth of Pilate re no fault with Jesus   –  are clearly there to counter-act the seditionist elements in the crucifixion story. These words are theologically motivated.  Pilate just happened to be in Judea in the time period the gospel crucifixion is set  –  and thus drawn into the symbolic drama the gospel writers placed within that time-frame  –  the historical tragedy of the years 37 b.c.e. when a representative of Rome, Marc Antony, did execution a King of the Jews for rebellion against Rome. 

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Boltonian

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February 19, 2016 - 11:05 am

Greg Matthews said

Lawyerskeptic said

spiker said .
 
 Would a backwater messiah rate the governors time? The other question is whether Paul would have been any more significant?  I know there is something out there about Roman citizens having had the right to have themselves heard by the emperor. I don’t know if that is even true or if true, would apply in all cases.

Just a wild guess, but I would think that a provincial governor would not necessarily be too busy to deal with a provincial troublemaker. If we are correct that Jerusalem had 25-35,000 people, the governor might be fairly hands-on. I see nothing inherently unbelievable about Pontius Pilate taking a personal interest in Jesus. Then again, he might’ve preferred to delegate to underlings whether he needed to or not.

I’ve been thinking about this lately too.  While on the one hand there is plenty of evidence in colonial America for higher ranking judicial members dealing with quite ordinary cases I have to think we’re considering the Pilate-Jesus dynamic through modern eyes.  In America we’re all equals.  While Roman upper society may have preached primus inter pares I hardly think that extended to who the Greeks would have called “barbarians”, ie “everyone else”.  In other words, Jesus was way too far down the pecking order for Pilate to have even bothered with.  Pilate was based in Caesarea (all Judean prelates were based there) and him being in Jerusalem was a once a year thing.  The Romans wouldn’t have only had trials once a year so surely his presence in Jerusalem was merely ceremonial.  As such, I question whether he even saw Jesus, let alone tried him.

I remember reading in one of Geza Vermes’ books somewhere (I will try to dig it out) that there is some evidence to suggest that Pilate (and a strong contingent of Roman soldiery) was in Jerusalem during Passover because of the potential for trouble making in general and seditious rioting in particular. This was caused by the heightened emotional tension of an occupied people during a religious festival and massive overcrowding, with Jews from all over the diaspora coming to the city – think ‘Haj’ today if Saudi Arabia were governed by a hostile non-Muslim power.   

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Bgipson

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February 19, 2016 - 12:22 pm

Lawyerskeptic said

spiker said .
 
 Would a backwater messiah rate the governors time? The other question is whether Paul would have been any more significant?  I know there is something out there about Roman citizens having had the right to have themselves heard by the emperor. I don’t know if that is even true or if true, would apply in all cases.

Just a wild guess, but I would think that a provincial governor would not necessarily be too busy to deal with a provincial troublemaker. If we are correct that Jerusalem had 25-35,000 people, the governor might be fairly hands-on. I see nothing inherently unbelievable about Pontius Pilate taking a personal interest in Jesus. Then again, he might’ve preferred to delegate to underlings whether he needed to or not.

Sure, you could add Pilate’s apparent hostility to local customs along with instances of confrontation and violence against the locals,

but it wouldn’t really be a question of whether he could fit it into his schedule. 

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Bgipson

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February 19, 2016 - 12:38 pm

Boltonian said
I remember reading in one of Geza Vermes’ books somewhere (I will try to dig it out) that there is some evidence to suggest that Pilate (and a strong contingent of Roman soldiery) was in Jerusalem during Passover because of the potential for trouble making in general and seditious rioting in particular. This was caused by the heightened emotional tension of an occupied people during a religious festival and massive overcrowding, with Jews from all over the diaspora coming to the city – think ‘Haj’ today if Saudi Arabia were governed by a hostile non-Muslim power.   

That sound familiar and, I think, pretty solid.  On the one hand you could take Sanders impression about the disturbance in the temple against this Roman concern for order; however, if we accept the story at face value, his arrest didn’t come immediately Whether that says anything about whether the Jesus movement was threatening enough or whether the Romans simply wanted to avoid  igniting a bigger disturbance. What can that tell us about the threat assessment? Of course, if the Romans weren’t right there in the Temple, it may be that they only heard about it afterwards .  Do we even have enough data to decide either way. 

Consider also the Jewish embassy and that one of the charges against Pilate was execution without trial. This is to say, Pilate simply couldn’t be bothered.

think ‘Haj’ today if Saudi Arabia were governed by a hostile non-Muslim power.   

Trump?

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Bgipson

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February 19, 2016 - 1:12 pm

maryhelena said

Indeed, there is just too many illogical issues within the gospel crucifixion story for it to have been historical. Jesus being ‘too far down the pecking order’  to warrant an appearance before Pilate being just one of those illogical issues.

Yet the assessment of Jesus social standing ( a good bit of speculation) is not Part of the Gospel crucifixion story(Unless you mean the Gospel according to Greg)

It wouldn’t be illogical at all for Pilate to either delegate a trial to an underling or simply order an execution without trial. If Jesus were arrested, it hardly matters whether he was thought of as a small dog in a big backyard. I don’t see that exaggerating  someone’s importance or not getting the story straight,  is illogical.  Ehrman for example finds the crucifixion to be “beyond the shadow of a doubt”. The charge and subsequent punishment are historically credible;( This is to say not illogical) particularly if you side with Reza Aslan and a zealot Jesus (or Dale Martin for that matter). Consider the scenario Ehrman has offered about Judas: Why pay this guy to follow and identify Jesus when you could send a slave for free? But suppose Judas’s significance lay in  revealing a secret teaching of his Master’s about their upcoming roles in the new kingdom. The disturbance in the temple combined with such information would probably have been more than enough for the Romans. But here again, if true, this doesn’t make the gospel story illogical.

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beautifulmeercat497

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February 19, 2016 - 2:03 pm

spiker said

maryhelena said

Indeed, there is just too many illogical issues within the gospel crucifixion story for it to have been historical. Jesus being ‘too far down the pecking order’  to warrant an appearance before Pilate being just one of those illogical issues.

Yet the assessment of Jesus social standing ( a good bit of speculation) is not Part of the Gospel crucifixion story(Unless you mean the Gospel according to Greg)

Laugh

It wouldn’t be illogical at all for Pilate to either delegate a trial to an underling or simply order an execution without trial. If Jesus were arrested, it hardly matters whether he was thought of as a small dog in a big backyard. I don’t see that exaggerating  someone’s importance or not getting the story straight,  is illogical.

So, carpenter or king would get the same judicial treatment under Rome? Doubtful I’d imagine  –  money and position ‘talk’ even today….

 Ehrman for example finds the crucifixion to be “beyond the shadow of a doubt”.

What is ”beyond the shadow of a doubt’ is that Rome executed the last King and High Priest of the Jews. Cassius Dio saying of Antigonus:  “These people [the Jews] Antony entrusted to a certain Herod to govern; but Antigonus he bound to a cross and scourged, a punishment no other king had suffered at the hands of the Romans, and so slew him.”

The charge and subsequent punishment are historically credible;( This is to say not illogical) particularly if you side with Reza Aslan and a zealot Jesus (or Dale Martin for that matter).

The issue raised is not that Rome executed a ‘king of the jews’  –  the issue is the gospel trial of Jesus before Pilate. A trial that has numerous illogical elements.

Either the threat posed by Jesus to
the stability of Jerusalem is so great that he is one of
only a handful of Jews to have the opportunity to
stand before Pilate and answer for his alleged
crimes, or else the so-called trial before Pilate is a
fabrication.
There is reason to suspect the latter. The scene does
have an unmistakable air of theater to it.
……
Yet in Mark’s telling of the story, something
happens between Jesus’s trial before Pilate and his
death on a cross that is so incredible, so obviously
contrived, that it casts suspicion over the entire
episode leading up to Jesus’s crucifixion. Pilate,
having interviewed Jesus and found him innocent of
all charges, presents him to the Jews along with a
bandit (lestes) named bar Abbas who has been
accused of murdering Roman guards during an
insurrection at the Temple. According to Mark, it
was a custom of the Roman governor during the
feast of Passover to release one prisoner to the Jews,
anyone for whom they asked. When Pilate asks the
crowd which prisoner they would like to have
released—Jesus, the preacher and traitor to Rome, or
bar Abbas, the insurrectionist and murderer—the
crowd demands the release of the insurrectionist and
the crucifixion of the preacher.
The scene makes no sense at all. Never mind that
outside the gospels there exists not a shred of
historical evidence for any such Passover custom on
the part of any Roman governor.
Reza Aslan: Zealot

Consider the scenario Ehrman has offered about Judas: Why pay this guy to follow and identify Jesus when you could send a slave for free? But suppose Judas’s significance lay in  revealing a secret teaching of his Master’s about their upcoming roles in the new kingdom. The disturbance in the temple combined with such information would probably have been more than enough for the Romans. But here again, if true, this doesn’t make the gospel story illogical.

The money aspect of the crucifixion story is illogical. It makes no sense for the priests to pay Judas when they could just have had Jesus followed by a slave for free….The relevance of money changing hands in the gospel crucifixion story is that, historically, re Josephus, money did change hands when the Roman, Marc Antony, executed Antigonus. (Interestingly, it is Pilate that gets the money in the version of the crucifixion story in Slavonic Josephus…and if one wants to find relevance in that story   –  Marc Antony, who took Herod’s money prior to executing Antigonus  –  eventually committed suicide…..)

 
 
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Boltonian

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February 19, 2016 - 2:49 pm

spiker said

Boltonian said
I remember reading in one of Geza Vermes’ books somewhere (I will try to dig it out) that there is some evidence to suggest that Pilate (and a strong contingent of Roman soldiery) was in Jerusalem during Passover because of the potential for trouble making in general and seditious rioting in particular. This was caused by the heightened emotional tension of an occupied people during a religious festival and massive overcrowding, with Jews from all over the diaspora coming to the city – think ‘Haj’ today if Saudi Arabia were governed by a hostile non-Muslim power.   

That sound familiar and, I think, pretty solid.  On the one hand you could take Sanders impression about the disturbance in the temple against this Roman concern for order; however, if we accept the story at face value, his arrest didn’t come immediately Whether that says anything about whether the Jesus movement was threatening enough or whether the Romans simply wanted to avoid  igniting a bigger disturbance. What can that tell us about the threat assessment? Of course, if the Romans weren’t right there in the Temple, it may be that they only heard about it afterwards .  Do we even have enough data to decide either way. 

Consider also the Jewish embassy and that one of the charges against Pilate was execution without trial. This is to say, Pilate simply couldn’t be bothered.

think ‘Haj’ today if Saudi Arabia were governed by a hostile non-Muslim power.   

Trump?

Rome cared only for the maintenance of order and the collection of taxes. How each Governor did it was secondary. Vermes also thinks that the story of Pilate being removed from his position by Tiberius in 36 because of the fear of his brutality provoking an uprising as being credible (Josephus?). Also, I doubt Pilate would be too bothered about due process of law: arrest and execute the trouble makers ‘Pour encourager les autres.’

BTW, I like Bart’s suggestion that Judas knew something of importance that was worth money, which I first read in WJBG. Ingenious. 

I thought Trump was allergic to Muslims. Or is that shaking hands? I’d better be careful; he might end up as the leader of the free world.

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Bgipson

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February 19, 2016 - 4:41 pm

So, carpenter or king would get the same judicial treatment under Rome? Doubtful I’d imagine  –  money and position ‘talk’ even today….

 

1.) that’s not illogical and 2.) entirely speculative.   I think it was Greg who referred to an actual case where a wealthy (royal?) person was crucified. The idea that crucifixion was reserved for the poor is a bit of question begging. And if you’re still in doubt we’ll consult the testimony of ms. Maryhelena who evered:

 

What is ”beyond the shadow of a doubt’ is that Rome executed the last King and High Priest of the Jews

Nice way to avoid answering the argument and are you saying that only one thing can be beyond the shadow of the doubt?

 I don’t see how insinuation helps your argument. Further the question was about whether Jesus was too lowly not whether he was a king. Are you paying attention to your own argument? That’s ok we’ll help you out by taking a look at the video tape,

Maryhelena said “Jesus being‘too far down the pecking order’  to warrant an appearance before Pilate being just one of those illogical issues.”

So which is it you’re arguing? That Jesus had position and money? Was a king? Further, there was never a question about warranting an appearance. My question was whether Pilate would think it was worth his time not whether Jesus would get a trial.

“The issue raised is not that Rome executed a ‘king of the jews’  –  the issue is the gospel trial of Jesus before Pilate. A trial that has numerous illogical elements.”

Then why did you bring it up? The fact that the charge related to  being King of the Jews, doesn’t mean he was the actual king.You do understand that, don’t you? 

The issue under consideration was whether the charge and subsequent punishment were historically credible.  but you not only didn’t show anything illogical about that , and then admit “that Rome executed the last King and High Priest of the Jews” [this is to say that carpenter and King apparently DID get the same treatment]but also the issue wasn’t whether Jesus was too important, but too lowly.  So one has to wonder how the “money and power” insinuation is supposed to be the least bit meaningful

The relevance of money changing hands in the gospel crucifixion story is that, historically…,

Yet the question wasn’t about relevance or what someone else (Marc Anthony) did. Whether Judas took money is not illogical.  More importantly the issue you raised was about illogical details in the Gospel stories. Ehrman’s argument is 1.) not in the gospels and 2.) speculation. You do understand that, don’t you?

I don’t see how taking a bribe is irrational. The idea that it doesn’t make sense depends heavily on whether Ehrman’s argument is correct. After all, Judas could have gotten the money for revealing Jesus secret teaching and gone with the guards to show them where he knew Jesus would be. In other words, why get a slave to do it when Judas already knows and may have to testify in the trial.The point of bringing up Ehrman’s argument was to show that an armed group of men isn’t necessary to explain arrest and execution. Money, in this context is incidental In deed, that Jesus was the only one arrested makes sense if he is the only one committing the crime. For the sake of argument, it’s entirely possible that the place of arrest was also where Jesus taught the disciples his secret teaching and got caught in the act.

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beautifulmeercat497

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February 19, 2016 - 6:46 pm

spiker said

So, carpenter or king would get the same judicial treatment under Rome? Doubtful I’d imagine  –  money and position ‘talk’ even today….

 

1.) that’s not illogical and 2.) entirely speculative.   I think it was Greg who referred to an actual case where a wealthy (royal?) person was crucified. The idea that crucifixion was reserved for the poor is a bit of question begging. And if you’re still in doubt we’ll consult the testimony of ms. Maryhelena who evered:

The issue is what charge would Pilate, a Roman governor, see fit to give his attention to. A charge of sedition against a carpenter is not in the same league as a charge of sedition against a King of the Jews.  

What is ”beyond the shadow of a doubt’ is that Rome executed the last King and High Priest of the Jews

Nice way to avoid answering the argument and are you saying that only one thing can be beyond the shadow of the doubt?

The issue is crucifixion. There is no historical evidence for the gospel Pilate story. There is historical evidence that a King of the Jews was executed by Rome   –  Antigonus in 37 b.c.e.

 I don’t see how insinuation helps your argument. Further the question was about whether Jesus was too lowly not whether he was a king. Are you paying attention to your own argument? That’s ok we’ll help you out by taking a look at the video tape,

Sarcasm……

Maryhelena said “Jesus being‘too far down the pecking order’  to warrant an appearance before Pilate being just one of those illogical issues.”

So which is it you’re arguing? That Jesus had position and money? Was a king? Further, there was never a question about warranting an appearance. My question was whether Pilate would think it was worth his time not whether Jesus would get a trial.

A trial would be worth the time of Pilate if the charge was sedition. However, I don’t think that you hold to that view  –  leaving the carpenter option on the table….and thus an appearance before Pilate historically doubtful…..

“The issue raised is not that Rome executed a ‘king of the jews’  –  the issue is the gospel trial of Jesus before Pilate. A trial that has numerous illogical elements.”

Then why did you bring it up? The fact that the charge related to  being King of the Jews, doesn’t mean he was the actual king.You do understand that, don’t you? 

A trial before Pilate in which the question was asked and not denied by Jesus. 

The issue under consideration was whether the charge and subsequent punishment were historically credible.  but you not only didn’t show anything illogical about that , and then admit “that Rome executed the last King and High Priest of the Jews” [this is to say that carpenter and King apparently DID get the same treatment]but also the issue wasn’t whether Jesus was too important, but too lowly.  So one has to wonder how the “money and power” insinuation is supposed to be the least bit meaningful

Pilate found no fault with Jesus  –  therefore, the crucifixion was illogical. If Jesus was charged with sedition then crucifixion was logical. 

The relevance of money changing hands in the gospel crucifixion story is that, historically…,

 

Yet the question wasn’t about relevance or what someone else (Marc Anthony) did. Whether Judas took money is not illogical.  More importantly the issue you raised was about illogical details in the Gospel stories. Ehrman’s argument is 1.) not in the gospels and 2.) speculation. You do understand that, don’t you?

The Jewish authorities did not need to give money to Judas  –  they could have used a slave  –  as, seemingly, Ehrman suggests re your own comment:‘Consider the scenario Ehrman has offered about Judas: Why pay this guy to follow and identify Jesus when you could send a slave for free?” 
That money changes hands in the gospel crucifixion story does not indicate historicity of that story  – especially so when Josephus has the account of money changing hands prior to the Roman execution of Antigonus.

I don’t see how taking a bribe is irrational. The idea that it doesn’t make sense depends heavily on whether Ehrman’s argument is correct. After all, Judas could have gotten the money for revealing Jesus secret teaching and gone with the guards to show them where he knew Jesus would be. In other words, why get a slave to do it when Judas already knows and may have to testify in the trial.The point of bringing up Ehrman’s argument was to show that an armed group of men isn’t necessary to explain arrest and execution. Money, in this context is incidental In deed, that Jesus was the only one arrested makes sense if he is the only one committing the crime. For the sake of argument, it’s entirely possible that the place of arrest was also where Jesus taught the disciples his secret teaching and got caught in the act.

If ‘secret teaching’ is on the cards  –  I’m not interested one tiny little bit……I’m interested in history and how the gospel crucifixion story relates to history. The gospel crucifixion story reflects the historical Roman execution of the last King and High Priest of the Jews. 

And no, I don’t argue that Antigonus = the gospel Jesus. Far from it. I argue that the historical execution of Antigonus, by the Roman, Marc Antony, is reflected in the gospel Jesus crucifixion story. The gospel crucifixion story being only a part of the gospel Jesus story, not the whole story. While the Roman execution of Antigonus accounts for the gospel crucifixion story, ie.  it explains that story –  the gospel Jesus story is more than it’s crucifixion story. 

spiker, unless any further responses to my post display a more appropriate manner  –  there will be no response from me.

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Lawyerskeptic

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February 20, 2016 - 8:11 am

Greg Matthews said 

 Jesus was way too far down the pecking order for Pilate to have even bothered with.  Pilate was based in Caesarea (all Judean prelates were based there) and him being in Jerusalem was a once a year thing.  The Romans wouldn’t have only had trials once a year so surely his presence in Jerusalem was merely ceremonial.  As such, I question whether he even saw Jesus, let alone tried him.

Roman historian Tacitus says that Nero was suspected of starting the great fire of Rome, so:

“Consequently, to get rid of the report, Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called Christians by the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judaea, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their centre and become popular.”

Tacitus, Annals Book XV.

Isn’t this one of the very few facts that we know about Jesus from outside the New Testament? Exactly what did Tacitus mean when he said “at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus?” Bart also translates Tacitus’ original Latin as “executed at the hands of the procreator Pontius Pilate.” Bart D. Ehrman, Jesus – Apocalyptic Prophet of the New Millennium 58-59 (Oxford University Press 1999).

Going back to your original question about the television miniseries, the miniseries depicted Pontus Pilate being in Rome pretty much all the time. I trust you more than I trust Roma Downey, but where you get your information that Pontius Pilate was only in Jerusalem once a year?

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gmatthews

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February 20, 2016 - 7:35 pm

Lawyerskeptic said

Greg Matthews said 
 Jesus was way too far down the pecking order for Pilate to have even bothered with.  Pilate was based in Caesarea (all Judean prelates were based there) and him being in Jerusalem was a once a year thing.  The Romans wouldn’t have only had trials once a year so surely his presence in Jerusalem was merely ceremonial.  As such, I question whether he even saw Jesus, let alone tried him.

Roman historian Tacitus says that Nero was suspected of starting the great fire of Rome, so:

“Consequently, to get rid of the report, Nero fastened the guilt and inflicted the most exquisite tortures on a class hated for their abominations, called Christians by the populace. Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judaea, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome, where all things hideous and shameful from every part of the world find their centre and become popular.”

Tacitus, Annals Book XV.

Isn’t this one of the very few facts that we know about Jesus from outside the New Testament? Exactly what did Tacitus mean when he said “at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus?” Bart also translates Tacitus’ original Latin as “executed at the hands of the procreator Pontius Pilate.” Bart D. Ehrman, Jesus – Apocalyptic Prophet of the New Millennium 58-59 (Oxford University Press 1999).

Going back to your original question about the television miniseries, the miniseries depicted Pontus Pilate being in Rome pretty much all the time. I trust you more than I trust Roma Downey, but where you get your information that Pontius Pilate was only in Jerusalem once a year?

It’s true that Tacitus wrote that and his statement is overwhelmingly accepted as historical, but did he literally mean that Pilate personally oversaw the trial and order of crucifixion of Jesus?  Tacitus was writing about 85 years after the crucifixion.  It’s acknowledged that he was most definitely not sympathetic to Christians so can we expect him to have intimate knowledge of their history with specificity?  He wrote that they were a class hated for their superstitions which was probably based on the widespread misunderstanding by outsiders of the bread/wine analogy to Christ’s body and blood.  Based on that error can we interpret his words about Pilate literally?  What was his source 85 years after the fact?  That’s my issue with what he wrote.  I definitely believe in the historicity of his statement in general though which is that Jesus was crucified during the reign of Pilate.

Regarding Pilate being based in Caesarea, this is one of those things I’ve “known” for a long time so I can’t say where I first heard it.  I know that Caesarea (built by Herod the Great to honor Caesar Augustus by the way) was the Roman capitol of the judicial district and military district of Judea and that it most definitely not Jerusalem which was only the capitol of Judea for the Jews.  Caesarea was also the city where Jews protested Pilate planting the Roman eagle standards in the Temple area.  Bart has recounted this story on the blog as told by Josephus.  Seems odd to protest in Caesarea if Pilate was based in Jerusalem doesn’t it?  The Pilate Stone, the only known historical artifact that mentions Pilate, was found in Caesarea. I tried looking for an historical record stating what the capitol of Judea was, but a quick look didn’t reveal anything.  That said, I’ve never come across anything that hints at Jerusalem being the center of Roman occupation or a colony.

I probably shouldn’t have said that Pilate was only in Jerusalem once a year.  Who knows how many times a year he went there?  My point is that he was based in Caesarea as I discuss above.  The Passover was an event that could have had a lot of unrest so it would make sense for Pilate to move troops there during this once a year celebration.  He may have gone there at other times of the year for other festivals or purposes.  I just mean that he didn’t live there.

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Bgipson

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February 22, 2016 - 1:11 pm

maryhelena said

The issue is what charge would Pilate, a Roman governor, see fit to give his attention to. A charge of sedition against a carpenter is not in the same league as a charge of sedition against a King of the Jews.  

Actually, no, the question was whether Pilate would have been there at all and your response to the idea that Jesus was too low on the social totem pole to warrant Pilate’s attention. That was the issue under discussion and the  one you responded to.

Further, that crucifixion was beyond the shadow of a doubt related to the claim of historicity. You chose not to deal with that response and instead wanted to speculate about whether a king would be treated differently. Yet no one ( I don’t even think Price or Carrier argue that Jesus was an actual king being charged.) claims.  

“So which is it you’re arguing? That Jesus had position and money? Was a king? Further, there was never a question about warranting an appearance. My question was whether Pilate would think it was worth his time not whether Jesus would get a trial.”

How is that sarcasm, maryhelena? You brought up the whole King scenario yourself in a discussion of whether Pilate would consider jesus worth his time; So either you’re arguing Jesus was wealthy etc or you’re raising an irrelevant issue.

“That money changes hands in the gospel crucifixion story does not indicate historicity of that story..”

Right, but no one made that claim.  First. I pointed to Ehrman’s speculation about whether paying Judas to follow and identify Jesus made sense.  Now, if Ehrman was right, the payment could have happened  for a different reason than what the gospels state which is what the discussion was about. 

“The issue raised is not that Rome executed a ‘king of the jews’  –  the issue is the gospel trial of Jesus before Pilate.

Again, you are the one that raised the whole king question. If that is not the issue, why bring it up?

A trial would be worth the time of Pilate if the charge was sedition. However, I don’t think that you hold to that view  –  leaving the carpenter option on the table….and thus an appearance before Pilate historically doubtful…

The first part (whether it was worth his time)  is right, but the discussion was about whether Jesus was too small time for Pilate ( a point no one else had a problem understanding) for Pilate to be there at the trial. 

Pilate found no fault with Jesus  –  therefore, the crucifixion was illogical. If Jesus was charged with sedition then crucifixion was logical. 

Yes, but the problematic detail is not whether there was a crucifixion, but whether Pilate (or an underling) actually found no fault. 

 

And no, I don’t argue that Antigonus = the gospel Jesus. Far from it. I argue that the historical execution of Antigonus, by the Roman, Marc Antony, is reflected in the gospel Jesus crucifixion story

yes an argument that you haven’t offered a shred of evidence for. But what does the idea that the Antigonus story being reflected  in the gospel Jesus crucifixion story mean?  What’s the relevance?

 

spiker, unless any further responses to my post display a more appropriate manner  –  there will be no response from me.

Are you keeping that promise THIS TIME or is this just more of the same?

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Bgipson

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February 22, 2016 - 2:22 pm

Greg Matthews said

.

Regarding Pilate being based in Caesarea, this is one of those things I’ve “known” for a long time so I can’t say where I first heard it.  I know that Caesarea (built by Herod the Great to honor Caesar Augustus by the way) was the Roman capitol of the judicial district and military district of Judea and that it most definitely not Jerusalem which was only the capitol of Judea for the Jews.  Caesarea was also the city where Jews protested Pilate planting the Roman eagle standards in the Temple area.  Bart has recounted this story on the blog as told by Josephus.  Seems odd to protest in Caesarea if Pilate was based in Jerusalem doesn’t it?  The Pilate Stone, the only known historical artifact that mentions Pilate, was found in Caesarea. I tried looking for an historical record stating what the capitol of Judea was, but a quick look didn’t reveal anything.  That said, I’ve never come across anything that hints at Jerusalem being the center of Roman occupation or a colony.

I probably shouldn’t have said that Pilate was only in Jerusalem once a year.  Who knows how many times a year he went there?  My point is that he was based in Caesarea as I discuss above.  The Passover was an event that could have had a lot of unrest so it would make sense for Pilate to move troops there during this once a year celebration.  He may have gone there at other times of the year for other festivals or purposes.  I just mean that he didn’t live there.

Yea, that makes sense. Consider also the notion that the Romans basically left local control in the hands of, well the locals.It seems like Rome was less interested in direct rule so long as they were receiving tribute and order was being kept.  And what better way to keep that up than by  keeping foreigners out of the day to day. For the most part, your point is valid even if Pilate were in Jerusalem once a month etc; however, if the gospels are right about when the crucifixion happened, wouldn’t that be one of the times Pilate would be in Jerusalem or could it be that he would simply have sent the appropriate force? Even if in Jerusalem, would Pilate conduct the trial himself.

Let me give an example of sorts

My Dad worked for the State of Ct for nearly 30 years. First in the Comptrollers office and then with Teachers Retirement. When he retired his department gave him a  party. About halfway through I wondered whether the governor was going to show up. Someone pointed out that Dad wasn’t important enough for governor to show up. Now clearly retirement is a totally different from treason at a sensitive time.

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gmatthews

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February 22, 2016 - 3:49 pm

spiker said

Greg Matthews said

.

Regarding Pilate being based in Caesarea, this is one of those things I’ve “known” for a long time so I can’t say where I first heard it.  I know that Caesarea (built by Herod the Great to honor Caesar Augustus by the way) was the Roman capitol of the judicial district and military district of Judea and that it most definitely not Jerusalem which was only the capitol of Judea for the Jews.  Caesarea was also the city where Jews protested Pilate planting the Roman eagle standards in the Temple area.  Bart has recounted this story on the blog as told by Josephus.  Seems odd to protest in Caesarea if Pilate was based in Jerusalem doesn’t it?  The Pilate Stone, the only known historical artifact that mentions Pilate, was found in Caesarea. I tried looking for an historical record stating what the capitol of Judea was, but a quick look didn’t reveal anything.  That said, I’ve never come across anything that hints at Jerusalem being the center of Roman occupation or a colony.

I probably shouldn’t have said that Pilate was only in Jerusalem once a year.  Who knows how many times a year he went there?  My point is that he was based in Caesarea as I discuss above.  The Passover was an event that could have had a lot of unrest so it would make sense for Pilate to move troops there during this once a year celebration.  He may have gone there at other times of the year for other festivals or purposes.  I just mean that he didn’t live there.

Yea, that makes sense. Consider also the notion that the Romans basically left local control in the hands of, well the locals.It seems like Rome was less interested in direct rule so long as they were receiving tribute and order was being kept.  And what better way to keep that up than by  keeping foreigners out of the day to day. For the most part, your point is valid even if Pilate were in Jerusalem once a month etc; however, if the gospels are right about when the crucifixion happened, wouldn’t that be one of the times Pilate would be in Jerusalem or could it be that he would simply have sent the appropriate force? Even if in Jerusalem, would Pilate conduct the trial himself.

Let me give an example of sorts

My Dad worked for the State of Ct for nearly 30 years. First in the Comptrollers office and then with Teachers Retirement. When he retired his department gave him a  party. About halfway through I wondered whether the governor was going to show up. Someone pointed out that Dad wasn’t important enough for governor to show up. Now clearly retirement is a totally different from treason at a sensitive time.

Why does your membership badge say “Doctorate Member”?

I’ve been having second thoughts about what I said about Pilate not overseeing the trial of Jesus.  We certainly have a strong tradition about it from multiple sources.  Maybe the high treason Jesus committed did in fact warrant the governor stepping in.

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beautifulmeercat497

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February 22, 2016 - 4:22 pm

.Greg Matthews said

I’ve been having second thoughts about what I said about Pilate not overseeing the trial of Jesus.  We certainly have a strong tradition about it from multiple sources.  Maybe the high treason Jesus committed did in fact warrant the governor stepping in.

Indeed, ‘high treason’ would warrant the Roman governor stepping in. But is not ‘high treason’, sedition, a controversial issue? ‘High treason’ brings a lot of political baggage with it! However, since all four gospels have Jesus before the Roman governor  –  then, surely, sedition of some sort, should not be ruled out. As it stands, the Pilate issue, without ‘high treason’ becomes illogical. That Pilate finds no fault with Jesus  –  i.e. no ‘high treason’, can be viewed as an attempt, by the gospel writers, to cancel out, as it were, the seditious element in their Jesus story. As, in my view, the crucifixion story is reflecting earlier Hasmonean history, the gospel writers could not deny earlier seditious activity against Rome  –  all they could do was attempt to minimize it. And of course, by minimizing it they created the illogical scenario of a Roman governor crucifying a nobody carpenter who had illusions of grandeur by thinking he was a King of the Jews…..

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Bgipson

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February 23, 2016 - 1:11 pm

Greg Matthews said   

Why does your membership badge say “Doctorate Member”?

I’ve been having second thoughts about what I said about Pilate not overseeing the trial of Jesus.  We certainly have a strong tradition about it from multiple sources.  Maybe the high treason Jesus committed did in fact warrant the governor stepping in.

Beats my pair of Jacks, Greg!  It’s certainly not based on what I know. Charity?

The charge is certainly severe and it’s reasonable to assume the governor would want to be seen as on top of it, but it strikes me as a bit comical: Consider, Martin’s thesis that Jesus and his followers come to Jerusalem armed so we might have 13 guys with swords ready to rumble. It’s certainly something that the Romans would not let pass, but how important is it ? Does Pilate oversee the trial of a homeless guy rattling on that he is Caesar? I still can’t help thinking the seriousness of the charge is dependent  on the size of the threat. Consider the difference between how the 93 WTC bombing was treated Versus 9/11

As to the tradition, all I can say is I think it is a late tradition. If I recall correctly, early Christian literature, Q for example, didn’t have a passion.  Of course, there’s no requirement to have one.A late tradition doesn’t mean false. To be sure, we have the whole “at the hands of Pilate” claim suggesting Pilate’s participation, but how literally do we want to read that? Could this simply mirror the modern tendency to blame or laud the president. 

I found this bit on Ealry Christian writings 

The inspiration for the subsequent discussion comes from the suggestion of R. Pesch that the passion narrative must have been written before 37 CE because “the high priest” is mentioned without any name. Although this argument is not secure, given the counter-example that the pharaoh in the exodus story is not named either, it leads Theissen to undertake a comprehensive evaluation of the way in which people in the story are mentioned.

Theissen finds another reason for the anonymity of the high priest; it was not necessarily for the reason that the writing took place before 37 CE. Rather, during the period between 30 and 70 CE, “there was no time when Caiaphas and his family were not powerful” (p. 173). For this reason, reasons Theissen, “Traditions circulating in their sphere of influence were well advised not to mention their names in a negative context” (p. 173). By contrast, as shown by Philo and Josephus, Pilate “was the subject of more negative tradition than many other prefects and procurators,” and so the creators of the original passion narrative had no reason not to mention Pilate by name and to place blame upon him. This situation is changed in the period after the First Jewish Revolt in the writings of Matthew and Luke, in which Pilate is exonerated and the high priest is named without hesitation. ** you do not have permission to see this link **

On the one hand we have a strong tradition associating Pilate with the trial. At minimum it tells us early Christians believed this was true.  If the passion narrative was written within 10 years (37 CE), it is certainly also early enough. 

Oddly I managed to find Bart’s response to my question about whether there was even a trial:

EDIT:

But first a little context. In a post titled Judas and the Messianic Secret,[apparently not written for the folks out here interested only  in History and not secrets] Bart wrote,

“But that makes Jesus’ execution a real puzzle.[identifying himself as the messiah only to his disciples]   I frankly doubt that Jesus was first put on trial before the Jewish Sanhedrin, as in our earliest account Mark.  My sense is that there was no official trial (as there is not in John), but that the authorities handed Jesus over to the Romans for trial and punishment.”

This intrigued me because I speculated that because one of the complaints against Pilate brought (according to Josephus) by a Jewish embassy to Caesar, was execution without trial. So I asked If he also doubted the Trial before Pilate:

“I’m not 100% sure that Jesus appeared directly before Pilate, but I’m 99.9% sure he appeared before *some* high ranking Roman official who ordered his execution for claiming to be the Jewish king.” 

So if we were to tally this up, it is pretty likely Pilate was there. I would be interested to hear Bart’s reasoning

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