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disproving the noetic effects of sin
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ask21771
1
April 16, 2016 - 11:29 am

** you do not have permission to see this link ** is there a way to disprove this

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gmatthews

498 Posts
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April 17, 2016 - 7:25 pm

ask21771 said
** you do not have permission to see this link ** is there a way to disprove this

What do you want disproven?  On a philosophical level it sounds reasonable: a damaged mind yields a damaged human.  It also sounds very gnostic.  But, what is sin?  Different religions have different sins and how sins are defined differ even amongst the various Judaeo-Christian sects.  This type of idea can be traced back to Jewish philosophy in the centuries following Alexander all the way up to the Maccabees as the Jewish priestly caste tried to rationalize itheir society’s place in the world and “cosmic law”: i.e., “natural law” vs “Yahweh’s law”.  Only through natural harmony of both could the person be in balance with God.  Following Mosaic law and therefore being as sinless as possible made one spiritually and physically “clean” and therefore in balance.

/steefen mode off

[[my explanation may be a little off, this topic converges a little with something I’ve been reading about recently which is the temple-state of Israel following Alexander so my explanation may be slightly in error]]

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Stephen
4766 Posts
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April 25, 2016 - 12:37 am

/steefen mode off

good one.  If you begin with the three hour videos then I’ll start worrying.

 

Ask21771 before we can define anything about “sin” you have to demonstrate that it’s even a meaningful concept in the first place.  But I do have to wonder if our perceptions of god are damaged by the “fall” then how do we know we’re not imagining it all?  Sounds like a big ole circular argument to me.

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tgeorgescu

26 Posts
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July 22, 2016 - 8:00 pm

Circularity is only vicious when you try to convince non-believers. For believers circularity is hermeneutic: their analysis moves in circles and with each loop they become wiser. E.g. dictionaries are circular.

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