Kazibwe Edris said
if elohim means gods, why is the verb “to create” in the singular?

is this because each god, according to author, was “one in will” to do the same act?

i.e, a builder lays bricks and so does his fellow builder which makes it same/similar act. 

or did the author disobey his own syntax and break grammatical rule?

muslim apologists want to side with jewish apologists in arguing that this is “one god” 

but every expert in hebrew seems to be saying that elohim = gods

elowh= god  

Let’s assume for the sake of argument that Elohim is not a majestic plurality but an actual plurality. is Moses a plural entity in Exodus 7:1:

Exo 7:1 And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god(ELOHIM) to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.

Moreover , if Elohim does mean gods, then where is this being restricted to three. All you have shown is that Hinduism is a viable option.

Stuff I have written about the topic:

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