Happy new Year Everyone. I have a couple of questions about passover.
In Exodus, we read:
> You shall keep it until the fourteenth day of this month; then the whole assembled congregation of Israel shall slaughter it at twilight. They shall eat the lamb that same night;
> In the first month, from the evening of the fourteenth day until the evening of the twenty-first day, you shall eat unleavened bread
In Leviticus, we read:
> In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, at twilight, there shall be a Passover offering to the Lord, and
> on the fifteenth day of the same month is the Festival of Unleavened Bread to the Lord; seven days you shall eat unleavened bread.
Question 1: It seems like these contradict each other. Exodus clearly says that as soon as twilight(dusk) of 14th starts, slaughering and eating should happen. That same evening, starts the unleavened bread festival for seven days, but leviticus says that this unleavened bread festival starts on 15th day.
Question 2: In Mark 14:12, we read that passover sacrifice happens on the first day of unleaven bread festival. This coincides well with Exodus, but not with Leviticus. Why does leviticus contradict ? which should we believe ?
Thanks Robert. Here is my quick summary and questions.
I have read that during second temple Judaism, people treat it to look at “twilight” word consisting of more time than it was in exodus. It said that twilight which usually lasts for 10-15 minutes was not enough to accomodate so many people’s sacrifices as this time is not enough and decided to say that “twilight” is between afternoon to evening.
Note that the word twilight in hebrew never appears(it’s modern translation), but what appears in original is “between the evenings”. Note that before leviticus, this still meant “dusk/twilight”. See:
> What are the two evenings? The answer is the two settings of light. The first setting is of the actual sun, and the second of the light. This means that the time of Bein Ha’Arbayim is modernly known as “Dusk” or “Twilight”.
But Leviticus might have changed it since he was in second temple judaism period.
While I can understand all this, I still see my question 2 unresolved. The writer of gospels clearly knew leviticus, why would they make this contradiction ? and most importantly, in my question (2), do you see the same contradiction as me ?
It seems like these contradict each other. Exodus clearly says that as soon as twilight(dusk) of 14th starts, slaughering and eating should happen. That same evening, starts the unleavened bread festival for seven days, but leviticus says that this unleavened bread festival starts on 15th day.
I’m not particularly knowledgeable about ancient Jewish timekeeping, but it is not obvious to me that there is a contradiction here. The evening of the 14th day is the beginning of the 15th day. Exodus says from the evening (i.e., end) of the 14th day you shall eat unleavened bread. Leviticus say from the 15th (which starts at the evening of the 14th) you shall eat unleavened bread.
😵💫
I’m bringing in the Apocrypha. I have a hardcover copy of the The Septuagint With Apocrapha:Greek and English translated by Sir Lancelot CL Brenton 1851. IBSN 978-0-913573-44-0
ΕΣΔΡΑΣ 1:1
ηγαγεν
A parse.
(root word αγω) 1st person Verb: I carry
(root word γηγεν from γην:earth and γενεα:race, family, generation)
(root word γᾱγενής)
Α mixture of Adjective and Noun: earthborn animal.
As also a Verb: to carry a earthborn animal
The η as a prefix is possibly the Imperfect and Aorist:past tense. Most likely it is the Indicative Mood because the book is recording a historical fact.
και ηγαγεν Ιωσιας το πασχα εν Ιερουσαλημ τω Κυριω αυτου
And carried in the sacrificial animal meat, Josias, the Passover inside Jerusalem to the Lord of him.
Josias brought the feast of the Passover into Jerusalem to offer to his Lord.
The Passover tradition at this time was it was food for God.
Much unlike today where it has become a holiday family meal they cook for themselves at home.
That’s why (theory) the Masoretic and consequently the KJV does not include the book of Esdras.
Because it would disagree with the traditions and interpretations after 70AD and Rabbinic Judaism. 🤷♂️
** you do not have permission to see this link **
** you do not have permission to see this link **
LSJ and Cambridge λεξικό
Porphyry, there’s a contradiction but you have to read also Mark 14:12. All these 3 end up in contradiction, until you dig deeper and realize that different observance must have happened in 2nd temple period.
I can see how Mk is in conflict with Lev. It still isn’t clear to me how Ex is is conflict with Lev.
Jewish days begin at sunset. Not sunrise. I think that’s where you’re coming from. Because:Genesis 1. There was darkness before the light on the first day.
We think the opposite in our calendar. Days begin at sunrise, the morning, or exactly midnight if you’re a modern Banker business man. 🤷♂️
Twilight begins at sunset and lasts through the night until sunrise. Passover dinner on the 14th day after sunset. A diet of unleavened bread beginning on the 15th day.
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
1 Guest(s)