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does Pilates wondering make sense?
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Robert
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January 18, 2020 - 3:13 pm
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Hngerhman

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January 18, 2020 - 5:09 pm

Robert said 

I considered that interpretation but it did not seem likely to me. I think there was a pretty standard time for the reburial of the bones in an ossuary of (at least) one year, which would be a more practical way to indicate the amount of time required. I would certainly not expect people to be periodically checking on the status of decay of a normally buried/entombed body. Also, given the larger context, would the family not have funeral rites withheld from them, but then be required to leave town immediately after the funeral? Thus I doubt this particular opinion was intended to punish the family but to spare them the horror of staying there in relatively close proximity to the decaying corpse of their family member. 

Completely agree. My use of italicized ‘might’ was intended to signal that a motivated reasoner looking for an escape hatch could claim otherwise – perhaps that it was intended to spare the family from the embarrassment of a crucified relative, and that the timeframe described would be synonymous with the (approx) year. Not that it was likely (I am in complete agreement with you there), but just that it couldn’t be totally ruled out.

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Hngerhman

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January 18, 2020 - 5:16 pm

As I think about how someone sufficiently motivated to read in favor of a burial interpretation might try to pierce the second passage:

Claim that it “only” shows that “sometimes” you don’t get the body back when you petition the government; which then implies “sometimes” you do, and that’s all you need to get a supportive argument for Jesus’s body off the ground.

But I’m still chewing on this hypothetical objection…

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Robert
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January 18, 2020 - 5:58 pm
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godspell

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January 18, 2020 - 6:55 pm

Sure.  Like families of Chinese dissidents receive their bodies back.  With a bill for the bullet that killed them.  

But leaving my jaundiced attitude towards oppressive authority to one side for the moment, Josephus was not related to any of the three men he got taken off the cross and given medical attention.  He didn’t even know they were being crucified until he saw it himself.  He had unusual influence, because he’d turned his coat.  But that was a far more extreme case than just getting the body of an obscure penniless Jewish holy man, who had been entirely nonviolent, and believed his God would be doing all the heavy lifting.  

Jesus would have been perceived as a madman by the Roman authorities.  You know that.  Madmen can be dangerous, but they would have to have been extremely stupid not to have figured out, by the time it was over, that he was no physical threat.  (And the other kind of threat was so far in the future, nobody could see it.)  Unless we want to believe the high-ranking Jews in the city were as heartless as Matthew and John make them out to be, you must assume some of them felt remorse, and it would have only taken one or several Jewish men with influence (and money) to get the body off the cross, into a grave–and this was wise, as well as compassionate.  Jesus had impressed at least some of the local Jewish poor with his message–no one can doubt he was a charismatic speaker, and able to hold his own in an argument, and these are traits that are deeply valued to this day in Jerusalem.  Leaving him up there was going to remind everyone that the temple leadership had conspired with the Romans to crucify a rabbi, who some had thought might be the messiah.   Getting him out of sight was good politics–at least in the short term. With the Passover ending, the pilgrims leaving, the disciples fled–where’s the harm?

Is this the only way it could have happened?  No.  But when Bart suggests rotting on the cross was the only possibility–that’s looking for certainty where it does not exist.  That’s reacting to one excessively dogmatic argument with another.  

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godspell

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January 18, 2020 - 6:59 pm

Robert said

I did want to talk about the Illiad, but like I say, I only have so much time to correct errors here.  

You mean like thinking there’s one correct spelling for a word derived from Greek in the Latin alphabet?

** you do not have permission to see this link **

(I’m confused by this, since looking back, I spelled it with one ‘l’ in both posts I mentioned it in, and that is the standard spelling.  Are you saying you spell it with two?  That’s fine by me, but….)

(I once had a guy insist to me I was misspelling the Japanese word for the samurai sword–‘kitana’–he thought it was ‘katana’.  Kitana, katana, iliad, illiad, let’s call the whole thing off.)

🙂

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Hngerhman

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January 18, 2020 - 8:12 pm
Our current belief in his historical nonviolence has little bearing on or doesn’t appear to track well with what the executing authority believed. They apparently deemed him sufficiently dangerous to merit crucifixion.
 
If the executing authority thought he (and his following) was entirely nonviolent, then a sentence of crucifixion is perplexing. Once we cross the crucifixion threshold, either (false dichotomy, for emphasis) they thought he was dangerous, or they were just disproportionately cruel. From there, what sympathies should we then assume in them?
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Stephen
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January 18, 2020 - 8:25 pm

godspell opines:

There’s also a lot of sources associating crucifixion with burial.  

Then you won’t have any trouble citing a couple for us will you?  (In his book Prof Ehrman includes quotes and citations to support his pov.)

Josephus got three friends of his–actual zealot rebels, who would have been responsible for the death of Roman citizens in their fight for freedom–taken off their crosses alive.  And given medical attention.  And one of them lived.

Well Josephus tried to rescue three friends from crucifixion by appealing directly to Titus.  Two died but one survived while being given medical attention.  Shall I quote the passage to you?  Why not!

And when I was sent by Titus Caesar with Cerealins, and a thousand horsemen, to a certain village called Thecoa, in order to know whether it were a place fit for a camp, as I came back, I saw many captives crucified, and remembered three of them as my former acquaintance. I was very sorry at this in my mind, and went with tears in my eyes to Titus, and told him of them; so he immediately commanded them to be taken down, and to have the greatest care taken of them, in order to their recovery; yet two of them died under the physician’s hands, while the third recovered.

Admittedly I’m slow sometimes but does anybody but me think that in the present context this anecdote is a complete non-sequitur?  What relevance does it have to the question of the disposal of Jesus’ body?  godspell, do you think Jesus was taken off the cross before he died?   Is that your point?

So it’s purest nonsense to say that crucifixion automatically meant non-burial…

Who is saying this?  Not Prof Ehrman-

My view now is that we do not know, and cannot know, what actually happened to Jesus’ body.  But it is absolutely true as far as we can tell from all the surviving evidence, what normally happened to a criminal’s body is that it was left to decompose and serve as food for scavenging animals.  (p157, HJBG)

I only added that in the face of a lack of definitive evidence one way or another the logical presumption would be that what normally happened did happen.  And that the NT writers (our only source for these stories) had a vested interest in portraying Jesus as special.   

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godspell

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January 18, 2020 - 8:34 pm

There’s plenty of evidence Pilate crucified Jews guilty of no violence at all–his attitude seems to have been take no chances, nip things in the bud, and he may even have gotten into trouble with Rome over that at times, since an overly harsh approach can create the very problems a territorial administrator is supposed to prevent–reportedly his successor was a lot more lenient.  

Part of Bart’s argument is that Pilate was casual about crucifixion.  But I can’t find any evidence he was a stickler for leaving bodies on the cross to rot, and I see plenty of evidence he had a give and take relationship with the Jewish authorities in Jerusalem.  He was only in Jerusalem for Passover, which was ending when Jesus died.  We don’t even know if he took any special interest in Jesus’ case.  The gospels say he did, and we’re mainly skeptical about that, right?  Well–selectively skeptical.  We believe any account that tells us what we want to hear.  Right?  

Can’t have it both ways.  If he wasn’t that interested in Jesus to start with, he wouldn’t care what happened to the body.  If somebody wanted it, he or some underling would have quite likely agreed.  Because that was an additional punishment, not always applied.  

And for what seems like the hundredth time–Josephus got three men who had been crucified for allegedly taking part in a massive military uprising against Rome taken off the cross and tended to–one of them lived!  There are no hard and fast rules when it comes to Roman crucifixion, and Roman ‘justice’ in general.  It’s all political, and the rules are pretty much whatever the person in charge wants them to be.  You can go from vicious cruelty to tearful compassion in a heartbeat. (A very bipolar justice system).   So there are no hard and fast arguments to make about what might happen to the body afterwards.  

So there is no basis for saying Jesus could not have been buried.  And all the accounts we have, going back to Paul, say that he was.  There were lots of Christians in Jerusalem by then.  And some of them would have remembered if he’d been left up on the cross to rot, because the entire point of doing that was so people would remember.  

It’s a very very weak case for non-burial.

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Hngerhman

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January 18, 2020 - 10:08 pm

There’s a slipperiness inherent in the argument that the executing authorities deemed Jesus be crucified – I’ll get to that below. But first, I want to take stock.

I agree that there is not a basis to say that Jesus could not have been buried. The case for whether he was probably not buried, however, rests on an evaluation of the evidence that speaks to frequency of non-burial. We do have some basis here.

Your very intriguing point that Cook does not put forth a frequency argument is quite interesting, in that, if true, it has the potential to upend the assumption we’re all discussing, which is that that non-burial was the default setting (which for me, at least, is based on Bart’s work). I have not yet read Cook, so I’m taking what you (and Robert) are saying about his work (in both directions) in good faith.

The situation, as I’m understanding it, is:

– We have positive textual evidence that Jesus was buried, and no positive textual evidence that he was not

– We have strong textual evidence that nonburial occurred, and some indication that it may have been considered the default (but perhaps not decisively more frequent)

– We have strong textual and archaeological evidence that (some form of) burial occurred, and some indication it was at the least more frequent than just a very few cases (but perhaps not decisively reasonably frequent)

– We have textual evidence that the non-Jesus cases of burial appear to have had some specialness involved with the appeals for release of the body

– Jesus’s story in the gospels inserts such a specialness in the appeal (Joe of Rama)

Please let me know if I missed anything crucial.

Now, the slipperiness. The problem I see with the argument of release of the body – without simultaneously relying on a specialness in the appeal – is that any argument that favors crucifixion also favors poor post-death treatment of the body, either through intention or cruelty or callousness. That is the issue: in the eyes of the executing authority, whatever argument merits Jesus hitting the threshold for crucifixion, then a parallel argument for poor treatment of the body is highly correlated. Not necessarily so, but practically so.

– If he wasn’t seen as entirely nonviolent, then it would argue for poor treatment out of intention

– If he was seen as entirely nonviolent, then it would argue for poor treatment out of cruelty or callousness 

It’s not impossible, but it seems very hard to find a wedge thin enough such that (a) the executing authority thought crucifixion was warranted but also (b) good treatment post-death was not. Why then crucify vs. private beheading or other execution?

Unless one invokes specialness of those doing the post-death appeal… Which then seems to suggest that if one wants to argue burial, then one has to help oneself to specialness in the appeal. JofA, or his ilk, starts to become *needed* to do the work for the account.

Until I have a better sense of the frequency issue (or learn decidedly that we have no real sense), I cannot yet claim that nonburial is a weak argument. I’m suspending judgment on it at present – but I will grant that if I either learn that burial was in fact reasonably frequent (with or without specialness in the appeal), or that we truly have no idea of the relative frequency, then the nonburial argument becomes much more tenuous.

But, the burial argument (without specialness of appeal) seems to have some real potential holes in it, too.

The fact of the matter in history is that it was either burial (properly defined) or nonburial (properly defined). However, a weak argument for one is not thereby a strong argument for the other. The arguments for both could be sufficiently weak such that taking a “no position” is the most justified route.

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Hngerhman

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January 18, 2020 - 10:23 pm

godspell said
 
There were lots of Christians in Jerusalem by then.  And some of them would have remembered if he’d been left up on the cross to rot, because the entire point of doing that was so people would remember.  
 

I asked a question about this point back on page 7, but I think it got buried in the flurry of excellent back of forth between you and Robert.

How large do you think the Jesus contingent in Jerusalem was immediately post arrest? Including or excluding the scattering and fleeing apostles?

The argument that there would have been a lot of Jesus followers around to see the fate of the body turns on how many there were actually present. It’s not in fact hard to imagine that he had a not very large following built up, that his temple incident stirred the temple authorities up for him to get arrested, and then the bulk of his folks scattered. If people understood him to be messiah pre-Easter, then when he got nailed to the cross and neither Elijah nor angels saved him, that this blasted another hole in the remainder of his followers who might have stuck around to see a show that never came but left at death. I’m not saying this is the case. I’m just saying I’m not presently aware that there’s a whole lot to say that this isn’t the case.

And any argument that he had a *big* following, when coupled with the fact that the authorities deemed him meriting crucifixion, further suggests that the body might only come down if there was a *very special* plea. 

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godspell

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January 18, 2020 - 10:58 pm

I have no number to cite, but I assume quite small–however, I think you’re wrong to think only dedicated followers of Jesus would pay attention to a crucifixion (public hangings were, after all, a widely attended event in later times).  

The gospels make no claim Jesus had any actual followers in Jerusalem itself, though it’s clear he was to some extent known there  If we believe some version of his triumphal entry occurred, one has to wonder how anyone even knew who this man mounted on a donkey was.  They knew who John the Baptist was, and we have no evidence he ever visited Jerusalem.  Charismatic rural holy men could develop what I suppose we might now call a fan base–casual followers–interested, but not really part of the entourage.  Like Twitter followers, or Facebook ‘friends’.  (Anachronisms abound).

If you’re going to say Jesus was seen as a threat by the Romans, you have to explain that.  If he had no following at all there, then why bother with him?  If he did have a strong following, then obviously there’d be a lot of people there who witnessed his death, and wouldn’t be identifiable as his disciples.  And they would know he’d been left to rot on the cross.  

So either way, the argument that he was left to rot is questionable.   He may have had a number of people who found him exciting, entertaining–but none of them were willing to risk themselves for him.  Even his disciples ran away.  He hadn’t recruited people on the basis of them being fighters.  That wasn’t what he wanted.  They didn’t seem to find their courage until after he was gone.  And they experienced something very strange, that some people explain as magical, and others seem to want to dismiss entirely.  

I think both approaches are wrong.

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godspell

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January 18, 2020 - 11:05 pm

Hngerhman said
There’s a slipperiness inherent in the argument that the executing authorities deemed Jesus be crucified – I’ll get to that below. But first, I want to take stock.

I agree that there is not a basis to say that Jesus could not have been buried. The case for whether he was probably not buried, however, rests on an evaluation of the evidence that speaks to frequency of non-burial. We do have some basis here.

Your very intriguing point that Cook does not put forth a frequency argument is quite interesting, in that, if true, it has the potential to upend the assumption we’re all discussing, which is that that non-burial was the default setting (which for me, at least, is based on Bart’s work). I have not yet read Cook, so I’m taking what you (and Robert) are saying about his work (in both directions) in good faith.

The situation, as I’m understanding it, is:

– We have positive textual evidence that Jesus was buried, and no positive textual evidence that he was not

– We have strong textual evidence that nonburial occurred, and some indication that it may have been considered the default (but perhaps not decisively more frequent)

– We have strong textual and archaeological evidence that (some form of) burial occurred, and some indication it was at the least more frequent than just a very few cases (but perhaps not decisively reasonably frequent)

– We have textual evidence that the non-Jesus cases of burial appear to have had some specialness involved with the appeals for release of the body

– Jesus’s story in the gospels inserts such a specialness in the appeal (Joe of Rama)

Please let me know if I missed anything crucial.

Now, the slipperiness. The problem I see with the argument of release of the body – without simultaneously relying on a specialness in the appeal – is that any argument that favors crucifixion also favors poor post-death treatment of the body, either through intention or cruelty or callousness. That is the issue: in the eyes of the executing authority, whatever argument merits Jesus hitting the threshold for crucifixion, then a parallel argument for poor treatment of the body is highly correlated. Not necessarily so, but practically so.

– If he wasn’t seen as entirely nonviolent, then it would argue for poor treatment out of intention

– If he was seen as entirely nonviolent, then it would argue for poor treatment out of cruelty or callousness 

It’s not impossible, but it seems very hard to find a wedge thin enough such that (a) the executing authority thought crucifixion was warranted but also (b) good treatment post-death was not. Why then crucify vs. private beheading or other execution?

Unless one invokes specialness of those doing the post-death appeal… Which then seems to suggest that if one wants to argue burial, then one has to help oneself to specialness in the appeal. JofA, or his ilk, starts to become *needed* to do the work for the account.

Until I have a better sense of the frequency issue (or learn decidedly that we have no real sense), I cannot yet claim that nonburial is a weak argument. I’m suspending judgment on it at present – but I will grant that if I either learn that burial was in fact reasonably frequent (with or without specialness in the appeal), or that we truly have no idea of the relative frequency, then the nonburial argument becomes much more tenuous.

But, the burial argument (without specialness of appeal) seems to have some real potential holes in it, too.

The fact of the matter in history is that it was either burial (properly defined) or nonburial (properly defined). However, a weak argument for one is not thereby a strong argument for the other. The arguments for both could be sufficiently weak such that taking a “no position” is the most justified route.  

We do not have strong ‘textual’ evidence nonburial occurred with Jesus.  We just know it happened with some people crucified.  The argument put forward is that we have very few bodies of crucified people–maybe two.  But the crucified were reportedly thrown into mass graves.  Where are the mass graves?  Bones last a very long time.  Dogs didn’t carry them all away.  “The dog ate it” is a lousy excuse in any century.  I think we don’t have the bodies because they were almost invariably poor people, and we don’t have most of the bodies of the vastly larger number of poor people who died of natural causes, either.  

My point is simply that if it was widely known (and it would have been) that the crucified rarely were buried, then the story of Jesus’ burial wouldn’t have been believed.  And opponents of Christianity would have thrown that in the faces of Christians at every opportunity.  Instead, we apparently had them insisting Jesus had not risen, but rather that his body had been stolen from the purported grave.  Meaning they found resurrection unlikely (understandable), but burial not at all.  

Meaning it was widely understood in the Roman world that burial of the crucified was commonplace. In extreme situations, such as the slave uprising led by Spartacus, they would leave the bodies up a long time, and make sure every slave even contemplating such a course knew the fate awaiting him.  But who would they be trying to impress by leaving Jesus up there, if he didn’t have any followers in Jerusalem?  

The argument for non-burial gets weaker and weaker, the more you think about it.  

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godspell

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January 18, 2020 - 11:12 pm

Stephen said
godspell opines:

There’s also a lot of sources associating crucifixion with burial.  

Then you won’t have any trouble citing a couple for us will you?  (In his book Prof Ehrman includes quotes and citations to support his pov.)

Josephus got three friends of his–actual zealot rebels, who would have been responsible for the death of Roman citizens in their fight for freedom–taken off their crosses alive.  And given medical attention.  And one of them lived.

Well Josephus tried to rescue three friends from crucifixion by appealing directly to Titus.  Two died but one survived while being given medical attention.  Shall I quote the passage to you?  Why not!

And when I was sent by Titus Caesar with Cerealins, and a thousand horsemen, to a certain village called Thecoa, in order to know whether it were a place fit for a camp, as I came back, I saw many captives crucified, and remembered three of them as my former acquaintance. I was very sorry at this in my mind, and went with tears in my eyes to Titus, and told him of them; so he immediately commanded them to be taken down, and to have the greatest care taken of them, in order to their recovery; yet two of them died under the physician’s hands, while the third recovered.

Admittedly I’m slow sometimes but does anybody but me think that in the present context this anecdote is a complete non-sequitur?  What relevance does it have to the question of the disposal of Jesus’ body?  godspell, do you think Jesus was taken off the cross before he died?   Is that your point?

So it’s purest nonsense to say that crucifixion automatically meant non-burial…

Who is saying this?  Not Prof Ehrman-

My view now is that we do not know, and cannot know, what actually happened to Jesus’ body.  But it is absolutely true as far as we can tell from all the surviving evidence, what normally happened to a criminal’s body is that it was left to decompose and serve as food for scavenging animals.  (p157, HJBG)

I only added that in the face of a lack of definitive evidence one way or another the logical presumption would be that what normally happened did happen.  And that the NT writers (our only source for these stories) had a vested interest in portraying Jesus as special.     

Stephen, I really try not to assume you’re a complete idiot.  

But you’re making it hard when you conclude I’m saying Jesus was taken off the cross alive.  I said no such thing.  So please reassure me of your mental competence, and say you were joking about that.  🙂

I didn’t bring Cook’s crucifixion book home with me, but I’ll gladly cite further references for you next week.  From the book Bart Ehrman has said, in so many words, he barely looked at when it came his way.  And when I mentioned Cook’s findings on the main blog, saying that I felt they cast doubt on his presumption Jesus wasn’t buried, he posted my comment, and did not respond.  

Bart has many times in the past reversed himself.  He will doubtless do so quite a few times in the remainder of his career.  In the field of history, one always must reconsider, and an excessive focus on one thing often leads one to miss other, equally important points.  

He isn’t God either.

And in case you hadn’t noticed, he’s not even sure he’s an agnostic leaning towards atheism anymore.  

Can’t trust anyone, huh?

😉

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Hngerhman

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January 19, 2020 - 10:33 am
We do not have strong ‘textual’ evidence nonburial occurred with Jesus. 
 
Concur. I hope that came across. If it didn’t, to be extra clear, we agree here. In the specific case of Jesus, we only have positive textual evidence of burial, and zero positive textual evidence of nonburial (obviously, putting aside docetic/gnostic accounts).
 
 

however, I think you’re wrong to think only dedicated followers of Jesus would pay attention to a crucifixion (public hangings were, after all, a widely attended event in later times).  

 
Funnily enough, we do not disagree on this point either – I just didn’t lay it out in what was already a long enough comment. 
 
But it may be the step beyond that where we part ways (I’m not yet sure). For this fact (that at least some noninconsequential number of people outside of Jesus followers witnessed the crucifixion) to matter is to assume there was a sufficiently meaningful interaction between the two groups in the aftermath. 
 
If we posit (as I think we both do) that the Jesus group was small, and then we append to that (a) it mostly scattered, (b) the core of the post-Easter believers were back in Galilee, and (c) when they did regroup back in Jerusalem, their claims were now quite different than when Jesus was alive – then I think we get a small group who weren’t terribly successful at convincing people in their immediate vicinity of their stories. And not intending to be pejorative but risking it, there was likely a bias of credulity within the small sample set of the population that became early post-Easter Jerusalem converts.
 
Let me try a different tack. What evidence do we have as to the size of the Jerusalem community pre-70? The TF doesn’t give us much to go on, nor does Paul, and Acts is, well…
 
I’d have to look more deeply into the actual population stats to have a better view, but it is easy to imagine (I don’t have want the availability heuristic to do too much of the work here, though) that there was not a lot of *meaningful* interaction between the small core Jesus group and those Jerusalem citizens who actually witnessed the aftermath to see where the body ended up. 
 
My point is simply that if it was widely known (and it would have been) that the crucified rarely were buried, then the story of Jesus’ burial wouldn’t have been believed.  And opponents of Christianity would have thrown that in the faces of Christians at every opportunity.
 
Yeah, I get that point entirely – it is a really solid insight you make. And it was precisely this point (plus your point representing what Cook does not say in his book) that got my attention earlier, and has led me to interrogate my assumption set around burial vs nonburial. Burial might have a stronger case than I’d previously understood, and nonburial might have a weaker case than I’d thought. But, as I said above, I’m not there yet on conclusions – I’m still trying to follow where the arguments lead me (and not the reverse). I am, however, coming from the direction of nonburial-town.
 
However, in light of my logic (crazy)train above, I think I’d qualify this excellent point just a bit. With the addition of an appeal by a special party (JofA; I imagine kinda like Jenny from the Block, but less of a dancer), the story is rendered believable to a first century audience. The textual evidence of burial that we have is highly suggestive of specialness in those cases where post-crucifixion burial occurred. So, I’d suggest we are not yet warranted in believing burial per se is therefore shown to be believable, but that burial in the wake of specialness of appeal was believable to them. That, I’d offer, is what the evidence supports. I know that’s a more minimalist approach to it than you’re laying out, so I’d love to hear why I should entertain greater maximalism here. 

As an aside, I’m aware but not deeply read here – e.g., I am familiar with the outlines some of the debates, like with Celsus and Trypho (but have not read them, only summaries). So I have to accept in good faith that what you say about the silence of burial incredulity in the opposing sides’ retorts is accurate. And I’m not aware of any counterevidence here.

 
If you’re going to say Jesus was seen as a threat by the Romans, you have to explain that.  If he had no following at all there, then why bother with him? 
 
It’s a great question, and a relative to Dr Fredricksen’s charge that one has to explain why Jesus got picked off but none of his disciples did (that we’re aware of). 
 
I think one can take a minimalist view of the evidence and still easily explain his crucifixion without him having a large following. He instigated an affront to the temple authorities in front of a “packed house” at Passover time, which caused something of a scene amongst a crowd that was vast majority not his followers, and he got picked off at night away so as to be away from these types of crowds. His message was an affront, and in that spectacle, eye-catching enough to spook the authorities. And then it comes out he doesn’t or can’t effectively deny messiahship charges (especially if Judas corroborated a messianic claim) – so he’s handed off for sedition charges.
 
One can get there without thinking he had throngs, or even a throng, of followers. If I were a iconoclastic rural holy man who descended upon an airport with a duffle bag screaming about the end of the world during an orange terror alert, I’d be arrested tout de suite, avec ou sans disciples.
 
When the executing authority has a hair trigger, small (in hindsight) threats get caught in the same net as large ones. And, to recall my earlier argument, when the executing authority has a hair trigger, post-crucifixion poor treatment of the body would be a more consistent outcome than compassionate treatment.
 
To invoke part of our shared position (I think?) on miracles here, “I don’t know…” But, I’m still trying to swim in all the arguments. Thanks for making some good ones to swim in!
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Robert
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January 19, 2020 - 11:30 am
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godspell

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January 19, 2020 - 11:34 am

It’s really not a big deal, and neither is you not wanting to discuss Greek mythology, which I’m even less well qualified to discuss–except that I am interested in the stories people of all cultures and eras tell–all stories are true, you see.  Especially the ones people make up.  

However, I still think that every Roman patrician grew up imagining what he’d do in Achilles’ place, when some supplicant asks for the release of a dead body.  We all have our fantasies, our role-playing games, that make us do things we might otherwise not do.  You might even say that’s our Achilles heel.  Oh please, you knew that was coming.  😉

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Robert
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January 19, 2020 - 11:44 am
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godspell

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January 19, 2020 - 11:48 am

Hngerhman said

We do not have strong ‘textual’ evidence nonburial occurred with Jesus. 
 
Concur. I hope that came across. If it didn’t, to be extra clear, we agree here. In the specific case of Jesus, we only have positive textual evidence of burial, and zero positive textual evidence of nonburial (obviously, putting aside docetic/gnostic accounts).
 
 
however, I think you’re wrong to think only dedicated followers of Jesus would pay attention to a crucifixion (public hangings were, after all, a widely attended event in later times).  
 
Funnily enough, we do not disagree on this point either – I just didn’t lay it out in what was already a long enough comment. 
 
But it may be the step beyond that where we part ways (I’m not yet sure). For this fact (that at least some noninconsequential number of people outside of Jesus followers witnessed the crucifixion) to matter is to assume there was a sufficiently meaningful interaction between the two groups in the aftermath. 
 
If we posit (as I think we both do) that the Jesus group was small, and then we append to that (a) it mostly scattered, (b) the core of the post-Easter believers were back in Galilee, and (c) when they did regroup back in Jerusalem, their claims were now quite different than when Jesus was alive – then I think we get a small group who weren’t terribly successful at convincing people in their immediate vicinity of their stories. And not intending to be pejorative but risking it, there was likely a bias of credulity within the small sample set of the population that became early post-Easter Jerusalem converts.
 
Let me try a different tack. What evidence do we have as to the size of the Jerusalem community pre-70? The TF doesn’t give us much to go on, nor does Paul, and Acts is, well…
 
I’d have to look more deeply into the actual population stats to have a better view, but it is easy to imagine (I don’t have want the availability heuristic to do too much of the work here, though) that there was not a lot of *meaningful* interaction between the small core Jesus group and those Jerusalem citizens who actually witnessed the aftermath to see where the body ended up. 
 
My point is simply that if it was widely known (and it would have been) that the crucified rarely were buried, then the story of Jesus’ burial wouldn’t have been believed.  And opponents of Christianity would have thrown that in the faces of Christians at every opportunity.
 
Yeah, I get that point entirely – it is a really solid insight you make. And it was precisely this point (plus your point representing what Cook does not say in his book) that got my attention earlier, and has led me to interrogate my assumption set around burial vs nonburial. Burial might have a stronger case than I’d previously understood, and nonburial might have a weaker case than I’d thought. But, as I said above, I’m not there yet on conclusions – I’m still trying to follow where the arguments lead me (and not the reverse). I am, however, coming from the direction of nonburial-town.
 
However, in light of my logic (crazy)train above, I think I’d qualify this excellent point just a bit. With the addition of an appeal by a special party (JofA; I imagine kinda like Jenny from the Block, but less of a dancer), the story is rendered believable to a first century audience. The textual evidence of burial that we have is highly suggestive of specialness in those cases where post-crucifixion burial occurred. So, I’d suggest we are not yet warranted in believing burial per se is therefore shown to be believable, but that burial in the wake of specialness of appeal was believable to them. That, I’d offer, is what the evidence supports. I know that’s a more minimalist approach to it than you’re laying out, so I’d love to hear why I should entertain greater maximalism here. 
As an aside, I’m aware but not deeply read here – e.g., I am familiar with the outlines some of the debates, like with Celsus and Trypho (but have not read them, only summaries). So I have to accept in good faith that what you say about the silence of burial incredulity in the opposing sides’ retorts is accurate. And I’m not aware of any counterevidence here.
 
If you’re going to say Jesus was seen as a threat by the Romans, you have to explain that.  If he had no following at all there, then why bother with him? 
 
It’s a great question, and a relative to Dr Fredricksen’s charge that one has to explain why Jesus got picked off but none of his disciples did (that we’re aware of). 
 
I think one can take a minimalist view of the evidence and still easily explain his crucifixion without him having a large following. He instigated an affront to the temple authorities in front of a “packed house” at Passover time, which caused something of a scene amongst a crowd that was vast majority not his followers, and he got picked off at night away so as to be away from these types of crowds. His message was an affront, and in that spectacle, eye-catching enough to spook the authorities. And then it comes out he doesn’t or can’t effectively deny messiahship charges (especially if Judas corroborated a messianic claim) – so he’s handed off for sedition charges.
 
One can get there without thinking he had throngs, or even a throng, of followers. If I were a iconoclastic rural holy man who descended upon an airport with a duffle bag screaming about the end of the world during an orange terror alert, I’d be arrested tout de suite, avec ou sans disciples.
 
When the executing authority has a hair trigger, small (in hindsight) threats get caught in the same net as large ones. And, to recall my earlier argument, when the executing authority has a hair trigger, post-crucifixion poor treatment of the body would be a more consistent outcome than compassionate treatment.
 
To invoke part of our shared position (I think?) on miracles here, “I don’t know…” But, I’m still trying to swim in all the arguments. Thanks for making some good ones to swim in!  

All quite reasonable, but isn’t it equally reasonable to think that once the crucifixion was over, and it became clear he wasn’t any kind of threat, that they’d all overreacted, that they’d just want to sweep him under the rug, so to speak?  Get him off the cross, into a grave, forget about him.  If only it had been that easy.  

If it was an invariant rule that those crucified for suspicion of sedition (without ever dong anything but turn over a few tables) got left up to rot, then fine.  It doesn’t seem to have been that.  It was case by case, as evidenced by the Josephus story.  Justice tempered with (very belated) mercy.  

I don’t need to prove Jesus was buried, because that’s the default setting–all primary sources agree that he was, and basically, nobody was suggesting he wasn’t until a few decades ago (except Muhammad), it isn’t the scholarly consensus that he wasn’t, there’s no evidence that he wasn’t.  

The only reason anybody says he wasn’t is to cast doubt on the resurrection story, but why would a rational person feel that was necessary, or even effective?  Saying he wasn’t buried isn’t going to change the mind of anyone who thinks resurrection of the dead is a thing.  It becomes a kneejerk reflex by some to shoot down every aspect of the story that is the least bit out of the ordinary, but what story could be more out of the ordinary than that of Jesus of Nazareth?  If it was all by the numbers up to that point in time, why did it depart so radically from the usual afterwards?  

Of all the people killed by Rome who had some kind of following, why did he–and only he–inspire such lasting devotion?  I think it was partly the man himself–his soul, if you don’t object to the term.  But I also think maybe something happened that his followers seized upon as evidence he’d risen.  It wouldn’t take much.  It definitely would not take a dead guy walking around with holes in his hands and feet.  

We have a mystery here, and pretending it’s all very cut and dried and commonplace isn’t changing that.  John the Baptist had a following that lasted long after his death, claimed he (not Jesus) was Messiah, but it never grew much, and gradually died out.  Nobody said he’d risen from the dead, far as we know.  Why not?  Perhaps because there was no such misunderstanding about what happened to his body.  Herod Antipas might have refused to release the body, out of fear of the strong movement surrounding John (stronger than that of Jesus, most likely) using it as a rallying point.  

Nobody said Jesus was left up on the cross to rot, that we know of. Why not?  Probably because he wasn’t.  He was buried, and his mortal remains certainly rotted, but in the minds of the people who had loved him, he remained alive, incorruptible.  They could not let him go.  They took up the cross themselves, and here we are.

Lots of things are possible, but what’s most likely?  That Jesus was buried.  His followers mainly never saw the body, but somebody was telling weird stories, and the stories inspired visions, dreams, and more and more creative variations on the original stories.  

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Hngerhman

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January 19, 2020 - 2:43 pm
Thanks Robert. Forgive if I’m misunderstanding your point. I take it that you are saying that the size of the Jesus group (and the size of the post-crucifixion audience) is immaterial to whether someone would have believed the burial story in Jerusalem in the period afterwards.
 

I completely agree that, if (a) burial was not unheard of, especially when we (now) know of cases that it occurred (qualified that it was with special requestors), then (b) a Jesus burial story (conditioned on a JofA-type situation) would not have been seen as incredible by first century listeners. We (now) have evidence that (a), namely special cases existed, so it’s wildly reasonable to believe folks in Jerusalem had heard those; and thus it’s very likely that (b).

 
But, the sub-point I’m groping at is: the size of the Jesus following, the size of the post-crucifixion crowd as witness to where the body went, and the interactivity between these two groups immediately and over time is material to the question of the conditional probability of: what is the likelihood of burial, given silence (of alternate accounts, or of objections) around nonburial of Jesus. I’m making the argument that if the size of the Jesus crowd was small (and had low interactivity in any meaningful way with the where-body eye witnesses), it lowers the likelihood of “alternative facts” accounts/objections influencing both pre/post-Pauline (and pre/post-Markan) traditions.
 
It’s not that it’s germane to the bigger question of “would then-hearers have believed a JofA-type account”, but rather that it’s relevant to how confident we can be that, because we have no alternative accounts/objections, that this really counts as evidence for burial. Hypothetical: If there’s not a lot of meaningful direct or indirect interaction between (i) those who saw a body stay up or go into a shallow grave, and (ii) those who were passing along and writing down the Jesus story, you’d not expect that counter-narratives would be preserved.
 
I hope that’s clear, and not redundant. 
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