On page 190 of ‘How Jesus Became God’, Ehrman says that ‘Jesus does not appear to anyone in Mark’s Gospel, but he does in Matthew, Luke, John, and the book of Acts’. However, in Mark 16:9-20, Jesus is said to have appeared to various people. I notice that there was debate over whether the verses 9-20 of Mark are original, or a later addition by someone else. Is Ehrman assuming the latter case?
Thanks
Yes for one thing 16:10 directly contradicts 16:8. Did Mary tell anybody or not?
I think the real question for scholars is whether or not 16:8 was the original ending of the book. 16:7 does seem to at least imply that there will be a resurrection appearance in Galilee. So was the original ending lost and replaced by this tacked on ending? It’s a bit complicated but you can make a good literary argument that 16:8 was in fact the original ending and while it is consistent with Mark’s overall point of view you can see where it might be deeply unsatisfying to later writers
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
1 Guest(s)