
As I wrote, John having the power and authority to baptize Jesus, where Jesus later turns out to be the superior, simply imitates Elijah bequeathing a double portion of his own miracle-working spirit to Elisha, who henceforth functions as his successor and superior. There is no reason to think there is any history here, because the writer could have just invented the pericope for theological reasons.
By a very larger stretch of the imagination. The problem is That Elisha is not “a superior” seeking something that can only be given by a superior. In the baptism story Jesus, the purported Messiah, seeks a baptism for the forgiveness of sin. This implies that John is superior to the Messiah. Similarity doesn’t prove imitation and could have is not evidence. The idea that the writer invented a story making his Lord look bad for theological reasons strains credibility to the breaking point.
The Elija/Elisha story is about handing down a mantle of authority. The baptism story does something else entirely

Talmoore:
An interesting analysis
RE: assumption 2
My speculation is that John the B may have been the reason , if not for J’s apocalypticism, than for his ministry. The baptism suggests that J heard him preach and may have been impressed enough to follow and commit hence the baptism. The baptism story rings true to me because it certainly could have been redacted. However, it is hard to gauge the significance of John to the early movement; so the baptism story COULD be made up in order to connect them. On the other hand, that is completely unnecessary because of the claim they were cousins.
So I think I agree with assumption 3 as well
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