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"nearness to the evemt criterion in NT texts
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bigalster

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February 11, 2017 - 11:59 am
I have a longstanding email exchange with my old philosophy prof, turned Lutheran minister(retired) for over 40 years. He’s a conservative and I am a non-believer.
He claims that the ‘nearness to the event” criterion to ancient NT texts equates to the closer to the NT writer, the more likely he is to get it accurate. I reject this thesis and pointed out to him that this in no one proves that textual transmission and historical reliability are the same. He says that that without this criterion of “nearness” it would be impossible to do history. He agrees to a distinction that something that is historically correct(the content) and the accuracy of textual transmission, he says that if you separate these two things, you end up with no history at all and that one would simply reject a NT text for philosophic or theological reasons. He goes on to add that you would be throwing out most of history if you didn’t have this “criterion of nearness”
Is there a real good rebuttal argument for this?
Just to add to his argument he further makes  these points; I’ll quote what he says
 
 
 “it still seems to me, as it has to most traditional historians, that there would normally be a relatively sound agreement between the text and the events that occurred.  This of course does not give us total certainty. I don’t think it is valid to automatically separate these two things, the text and the history, and call it ‘false equivalency,’  to automatically oppose one to the other.  You are again speculating here that the content is not true (as opposed to the text). You don’t know that much re the content if you don’t know what actually occurred yourself in some other fashion.    How would you possibly know that a particular  text did not reflect the truth of the content of what actually occurred?  As far as I know, you have no criteria whatsoever for making such a judgement.  If we separate the text totally away from the event, how do you establish the truth of falsity of what occurred, of the content, of any event?  You don’t seem to address that question.”
 
It is a fierce battle we continue to have and we are diametrically opposed,I’ve been reading a lot of Bart’s blog stuff and trying to use some of these arguments because I believe Bart makes sense,but I need  better ammo in order to respond to him. I need to be able to respond better to this claim he is making.I would appreciate your help.
 
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Stephen
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February 13, 2017 - 8:33 pm

How would you possibly know that a particular  text did not reflect the truth of the content of what actually occurred?  As far as I know, you have no criteria whatsoever for making such a judgment.  If we separate the text totally away from the event, how do you establish the truth of falsity of what occurred, of the content, of any event?  You don’t seem to address that question.”

This is merely an attempt to shift the burden of proof. The responsibility to provide valid criteria is on the one making the claim not the one questioning it. How could he possibly know that that a particular text does reflect the truth of the content of what actually occurred? Simply because it is near in time to the events that might have occurred?  What does “near in time” mean?  Well Paul is writing about the resurrection 20 years or so after Jesus’ death.  He is relying on personal visions for his theology and consciously distancing himself from Jesus’ closest companions (by his own admission Paul thinks the folks who knew the historical Jesus best got it wrong).  He relates second hand stories of unknown provenance about the resurrection appearances.  He never met Jesus and knows practically nothing about his life pre-Easter.  If Prof Ehrman’s thesis is correct Paul believed Jesus was a pre-existent divine angel who was incarnated into human flesh.  And this is our earliest account of who Jesus was!  

What about “might have occurred”?  There is a certain circularity in the argument here.  Before you can establish that a text is near to the event you need some other criteria to establish that the event occurred.  A claim that an event occurred is not evidence that it occurred.

Hope this helps.

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bigalster

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February 15, 2017 - 10:15 pm

Yes very helpful. I particularly like the shifting of the burden. there are still lingering issues like how “nearness to event” can be construed as legitimizing the truth of the NT texts. As with Bart, I too accept that they are historical documents that seem to support an historical Jesus,his crucifixtion,  death and the following that it generated thereafter. I don’t accept the Resurrection because there is no evidence(other than the claims made by the Gospels themselves).We have no eyewitnesses to this event unless you believe what the NT says itself. To say that we have documents written within 50-100 yrs after his death doesn’t entail that what we are reading is reliably transmitted,or truthful from the original source.Perhaps it is all  made up.

The very notion of what constitutes “original text” is itself dubious. When Paul dictated Romans to Tertius can we as Ehrman makes clear on his blog,say that  this is the “original” or is it after the dictation and after Paul proofread’s (presumably) what was written down? It gets very sticky when you start thinking about this whole concept of”original text” and what that means;and  to say we have 98% of the original text or something very close to that. How would anyone even begin to guess-timate that? It assumes that someone somewhere has access to the originals and as far as i know,they don’t.

What bothers me more is his assumption that the text and the event are intractably intertwined and that because scribes copied down mostly oral traditions,we are to believe and accept on faith that what they wrote is reliable and historically accurate. It  seems to me to be just  blind trust without ever questioning what modus operandi the scribes may have had or what ulterior purposes or vested interests were behind all the scribal textual variants etc… The history of humanity has always been the ole cliche,”what’s in it for me”.I don’t think that has ever changed.

He also maintains that there is very little evidence of Greco-Roman mythology on Christianity.I seriously doubt that and I believe Bart has stuff on that topic in his blog archives. The other thing is that when i bring up the inherent contradictions in the Gospels like  Matt 28:19,MK 16 & John 8:7 he fires back at me that we don’t know whether these alternate readings are forgeries,he says that is pure speculation. He then goes on to state that they don’t appear in the earlier and best texts and this is reason most Bibles leave them out.

The last point are his comments here>>>

 

“Again, we have to be careful with a distinction between historical accuracy and accuracy of the text.  I agree that the two are not necessarily equivalent.  But it is not good enough to leave it at that.  While an inaccurate text will certain not give us accurate history, an accurate text has a far greater and the only chance of giving us accurate history.  So the two sides of this argument do not stand on the same ground.  And we cannot know ultimately if an accurate text is not accurate history.  How would you know? As I’ve mentioned, Aristotle tells us that we must believe the text unless we find solid evidence to the contrary.  Nearness to the event is one major criterion among others for accuracy of the content of the text, and cannot be dismissed. 
 
     I do not simply assume that what is in the Bible is reliable and truthful.  Of course it has to be checked out.  That’s exactly what Luke tells us he did, and so does John in his first letter.  And St. Paul tells us already by 55 AD that the ‘tradition’ he has been given is that the risen Christ appeared to many, including over 500 at one time.  That sounds like quite extraordinary evidence in ancient times.  Not that it has to be extraordinary.  Remember Aristotle.”
 
When challenged about the veracity of the historical texts(not that they were not transmitted in the manner they were) he responds by quoting from the only the very source that is in question, the Scriptures;  using an internal source to substantiate his claims for authenticity. He doesn’t have secondary sources to back up his claims so he falls back on quoting internally from the very hand that feeds his theological bias!
 
 

Thx again Stephen,feel free to add to this.

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Stephen
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February 16, 2017 - 8:22 pm

bigalster I mean no real disrespect to your friend but this is a perfect example of a person so committed to a position that they resort to all manner of mental gymnastics to hold onto it.  I have to confess I think you are wasting your time trying to reason with him. Nevertheless…

Your friend doesn’t grasp the difference between a claim and evidence for that claim.  A claim is not evidence.  “Luke tells us he did…” So what?  Mohammad claims to have received dictation from Allah.  Can’t get any nearer to the event than that.  Is your friend prepared to become a Muslim?

The scholar S T Joshi has published newly revised and corrected texts for the fantasy/horror stories of H P Lovecraft.  These texts are as accurate as they will ever be.  But I don’t see too many folks believing Lovecraft’s monsters are real.  Accuracy of text has nothing to so with historicity of events. 

One other point.  We have no access to the inner thought processes and motivations of the New Testament writers.  Annoying but true.  So any theory that presupposes such knowledge is D.O.A. as far as I’m concerned. Case in point:  Did the writer of Mark really believe that Jesus’ last words were “My God, My God why have you forsaken me?” and thought he was reporting historical fact, or, did he assume his audience was sophisticated enough to understand he couldn’t possibly know what Jesus actually said (how could he) and placed those words in Jesus’ mouth as a literary device to raise the entire series of associations that would come to mind by quoting the first line of Psalm 22?  You pays your money and makes your choice.  But the honest answer is, we’ll never know. 

Good luck.

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bigalster

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February 17, 2017 - 1:27 am

Stephen, thx .I think he knows the difference,he’s no dummy.MA in philosophy and two STM’s it’s just that at 70 yrs old he is old school and believes that we can look and treat the NT texts as genuine historical doc’s.I agree we can but that doesn’t mean what they are saying is either historically true or accurate.We’ve known each other since 1970,he taught me philosophy and i went on to degree in that so we go back long time. We are good friends  but bitter theological counterparts! I enjoy challenging what he says not with the view in mind of getting him to change his views,  but rather to convince him that there are two sides to a coin. Many thx again.I’m in process of responding to his last email. Thx again.

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Stephen
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February 17, 2017 - 2:06 pm

Just so you know, I’m an atheist and one of my best friends is a minister who I’ve known since High School.  We have similar good natured but fundamentally serious arguments too.  We’re the same age and I guess I see him and his life as the “road not taken” and he sees me as a sincere seeker who is taking the circuitous route to the truth.   Friendship transcends these differences as it should.  At my age I am more concerned with correctly articulating my position than trying to convert anyone.

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Judith

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February 17, 2017 - 9:23 pm

Stephen: “At my age I am more concerned with correctly articulating my position than trying to convert anyone.”  That describes exactly where I am as to religion, politics, various interests or tastes. It’s challenging if one is continuously open to learning and new experiences, rendering a position in constant flux! Appreciate your contributions here.

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