Bart’s book “The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture” has an excellent section on John 1:18 (starting on page 78). I don’t know Greek but I have looked up a few words on “Google Translate”. In that section Bart is talking about μονογενής “monogenes” and the fact that some manuscripts have μονογενὴς θεός while others have ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός. Transliterated (if I understand correctly) these two variants would be “monogenes theos” versus “monogenes eeos” (ie: “the only God” or “the only Son”). But looking at the sounds of these two words for “Son” and “God” in Greek, it would be “eeos” versus “Theos” …right? So these two sounds are very similar and if a group of scribes were listening to a reader it seems plausible to me that the reader could have said “eeos” (ie: Son) but some of the scribes might have thought he said “Theos” (God).

So I’m wondering; does this sound like one more plausible explanation that might be added to the list of plausible explanations for the variation in the witnesses for this text?