I’m looking closely at the variations of the genitive case “son of God”
Suspecting there’s actually a difference in meaning that caused the debate between the HomoOusion and HomoIousion
HomoOusion would be the phrase written ENTIRELY in the Gentive Case
Υιου Θεου ΥΙΟΥ ΘΕΟΥ υιου Θεου
Υιου του Θεου ΥΙΟΥ ΤΟΥ ΘΕΟΥ
HomoIousion
Υιον του Θεου ΥΙΟΝ ΤΟΥ ΘΕΟΥ
There’s a difference I think, or I’m just imaging my own interpretation of it. 🤦♂️
So the translation in the NA28 has ΥΙΟΥ ΘΕΟΥ υιου Θεου. But there’s multiple variations.
I interpret that specific gentive case phrase Υιου Θεου as meaning that the Son is God. All the words are in the Genitive Case,
while υιον του Θεου does NOT mean the Son is God.
🤷♂️
What is it?
@Porphyry
Every word of a phrase that is written in the Genitive Case is the same thing. 🤷♂️
Like how kinds of pronouns, adjectives, and verb participles are to be written in the same Case as the noun it all refers to; which might be a pronoun suffix on a verb in certain phrases.
A phrase all of only Genitive Case would be the same (HomoOusion)
A phrase all of either Nominative, Dative, Accusative would be similar (homoIousion)
τον χρονον ουκ καινω
Η γη : Nominative case, (the earth) first declension noun, feminine gender, singular
της αβυσσου : Genitive case, (of abyss), noun, feminine gender, singular; this particular word seems to break the rules, but it’s used in LXX this way, Genesis 1:2 🤷♂️
There two different cases in the expression. The earth and the abyss are not the same thing.
So what does this form mean? All genitive case, singular
γης της αβυσσου
The NA28 Koine Greek with ESV has it translated as Jesus the Galilean.
Checking my KJV, it has Jesus of Galilee.
Checking my 1611 facsimile KJV it has Jesus of Galilee.
Checking my NIV it has Jesus of Galilee.
Checking my The New English Bible with the Apocrypha it has Jesus the Galilean.
Checking my RSV it has Jesus the Galilean.
Checking my old ASV it has Jesus the Galilean.
“Of Galilee” and “the Galilean” must be the same meaning or else all logic falls to pieces in these translations. 🤕 I think that both are correct and equivalent, so far.
The English translations don’t have a distinction between Ιησου του Γαλιλαιου in meaning, but in one case Galilee is a noun, while “of Galilee” is the adjective:Galilean.
“the Galilean” is equivalent to “of Galilee”
And according to a 2-1-2 declension noun, the genitive case adjective singular ending is ου for the second declension
and Γαλιλαῖος is consistently translated as a 2-1-2 masculine noun. ** you do not have permission to see this link **
The phrase Υιου του Θεου is not in the Greek NT text I have, anywhere. I cannot compare it to the English translations of Ιησου του Γαλιλαιου
THE END.
IF however, it was, that means God is also an adjective and the phrases Son of God and Son the Godly would be equivalent translations.
BDEhrman
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