I am studying the Gospel Of Mark in English using the RSE but I keep asking the question am I studying anything close to the authentic Gospel of Mark? I am not a scholar and cannot read the gospel in Greek.
All it appears we have to refer to are P137 dated to the late second or early third century AD and P45 dated to 250 AD containing portions of the gospel. Most of the references or quotes from church fathers to the gospel of Mark are hundreds of years from AD 70 or so which most scholars agree was the date the gospel was written
We then jump to the Codex Sinaiticus in the fourth century for what I believe is the first complete gospel of Mark without verses 16: 9-20.
Many thanks for any clarification.
Doug
One surface objection to the whole enterprise of “dating” the original text when the first nearly complete transcribed copies we have come from centuries later is that “lots of things could have changed between that date and the time the copy was transcribed”.
However, a complete overhaul in the middle of the 2nd century would have been a document composed in the middle of the 2nd century, even if based on earlier source material, and so it would be likely to contain clues that would suggest a middle of the 2nd century dating.
So even though there seem likely to be later interpolations and redactions, the clues to a composition between the first and second Jewish revolts are circumstantial evidence against a later thoroughgoing rewrite from the ground up.
Admittedly, this is “mere” circumstantial evidence rather than conclusive evidence, but with the scanty information we have on this stuff directly from the 1st Century CE, circumstantial evidence is better than nothing.
Admittedly, this is “mere” circumstantial evidence rather than conclusive evidence, but with the scanty information we have on this stuff directly from the 1st Century CE, circumstantial evidence is better than nothing.
I think this realization is why several younger critical scholars are leading a movement to readdress the scholarly consensus on dating the gospels. The reason most scholars date Mark around the time of the First Revolt is because the author is obsessed with the Temple and its relationship to Jesus as the crucified Messiah. The author seems clearly aware of the destruction of the Temple and even more importantly, associates that episode with the Parousia. The latter would be strange if he were looking back, writing later in the Second Century. Buuuuut… and it’s a big but (sorry), we really don’t know. As you say, we suppose.
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
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