In re-reading Matthew’s version of the Nativity story in the King James, I did a double-take on the Wise Men’s “we have seen his star in the East.” If the Wise Men were from the east, wouldn’t they have seen the star in the west? If they saw a start in the East and followed it they would be traveling toward India or China, not Judea. Later translations of the Bible changed this — for instance, the English Standard Version translates the phrase to “we saw his star when it rose.” That leads me to think later scholars recognized the problem and changed the language. Is there any scholarship on the discrepancy?
Robert said
The Greek word for “east” here literally means ‘the rising’, ie, where the sun rises (in the East). On the one hand, the Magai come ‘from eastern (parts)’ (plural) (ἀπὸ ἀνατολῶν) and they say they saw his star ‘in the rising (of it) (ἐν τῇ ἀνατολῇ) (singular). Since the second use of the term ‘rising/East’ is in the singular with the definite article (unlike the first use of the term), it is more likely referring to its ‘rising’ and not to ‘the (plural) Eastern (parts)’ as the geographical location’ from which the Magai came. One can understand why the King James Version translated this as “in the East,” but is not the translation that makes the most sense here.
Interesting — thanks.
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