
lost-in-earth wrote
More importantly Mark slips up and flat out tells you he is writing from the future.
Mark 13: 14“But when you see the desolating sacrilege set up where it ought not to be (let the reader understand), then those in Judea must flee to the mountains; 15 the one on the housetop must not go down or enter to take anything from the house; 16 the one in the field must not turn back to get a coat. 17 Woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing infants in those days! 18 Pray that it may not be in winter. 19 For in those days there will be suffering, such as has not been from the beginning of the creation that God created until now and never will be. 20 And if the Lord had not cut short those days, no one would be saved, but for the sake of the elect, whom he chose, he has cut short those days. 21
Scholar Hendrika Roskam in her book The Purpose of the Gospel of Mark in its Historical and Social Context, on page 91 points out that:
“Jesus continually speaks of the events as things that will happen ‘in those days’. Therefore, one would expect Mark’s Jesus to say in v. 19 ‘such as has not been…until then, not until now. ………The ‘now’ in v. 19 seems to reflect Mark’s time rather than Jesus.”
In a footnote for this section she also points out that Mark 13:19 is based on Dan 12:1 which instead reads “that day”.
Hello Robert,
since you know greek, has mark slipped up or is he using some special literally device ?
“for in those days there will be great suffering unseen before UNTIL now….” ?

I don’t see why you couldn’t just take ‘now’ as referring to Jesus’ own present–the force would then be something like, “whatever the worst calamity that you, today, know of from history: what is going to happen then will be even worse.”
I think it can make fine sense read either way, so it doesn’t strike me as compelling to call it a slip up.
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
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