It seems two things are going on: 1) Mark calls Jesus God and 2) Mark calls Jesus Son of Man. The Son of Man is not God.
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Dr. Ehrman,
Wes Huff says Gospel of Mark says Jesus is God in many chapters.
I do not think you would agree with that.
Wess Huff says it is not true that Jesus becomes more divine in the Gospel of John than in the Synoptics.
Chapter 1
Chapter 2
Chapter 3
Chapter 4
Chapter 5
Chapter 6
Chapter 7
Chapter 8
Chapter 9
I disagree with Wes Huff’s last claim. Jesus says I AM which is God. Jesus is not the Son of Man, he is I AM.
This speaks to your posts about Is Jesus God (in Pauline LETTERS AND IN THE Gospels).
Here is his 6:09 video. [Given]
Hopefully you will be able to refute him or agree with him.
How many of the 9 points and my 10th point can your perspective overturn?
Steve
Author of Historical Accuracy, First Edition
New International Version
Job 9:8
He alone stretches out the heavens and treads on the waves of the sea.
To make Chapter 6 really an argument for Jesus’ divinity, what would the verse need to say, God alone treads on the waves of the sea?
If only God treads on the water, like only the Greek Gods Hermes and Athena put on the fleet sandals and walk on the water, then since Jesus treads on water, he must be a god? (God can teach others how to walk on water.)
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Jesus never calls himself divine/god/God, he shows it.
Mark never calls Jesus God, unlike John, Mark recounts Jesus acting as God.
Jesus and Mark do not commit blasphemy but Jesus presents himself and Mark presents Jesus doing things God does.
Those who have eyes, see and those who have ears, hear.
The Pharisees: well, if Jesus can do these 8 or 9 things, we cannot charge him with blasphemy.
Gospel of John is more explicit
Jesus was not the Jewish Messiah. The composite character of historical fiction loss the Battle of Galilee, for one thing.
Jesus is the Messiah and the Temple is destroyed within 100 years? ? ?
To claim Jesus is the Messiah and to write as Wess Huff points out Jesus doing things reserved for God is a blasphemous falsehood.
Rome condemns falsehoods.
The priests and upper class that supported Rome condemned that nonsense to death.
Jewish apocalypticism is a false and failed hypothesis.
Jesus did not pick up where other Messiah’s left off when they were killed. What were they revolting for?
Answer: Paying taxes.
Rome found no fault in Jesus and Jesus found no fault in Rome.
Jesus was not the Messiah.
I will agree with Wess Huff.
Mark 1:1, when I look at the Greek there’s a big long string of Genetive case. The last word God should end in a sigma if there’s a difference between Son and God. It doesn’t so to my understanding of Greek the verse is saying that the Eve Angel (gospel) Jesus Christ Son God is all the same person, possession.
At least the Greek version I have. NA28. There’s is not a “of” between Son God.
The gospel is apparently a manifestation that is Angel Eve. ευα αγγελιου 🤔
Google AI,
Should I am be in all caps at Mark 14:62
Google AI said:
Yes, in Mark 14:62, “I am” should be written in all caps (“I AM”) because it is a direct reference to God’s name, יהוה (Yahweh), in the Hebrew Bible, signifying a powerful and deliberate declaration of Jesus’ divinity.
Explanation:
Biblical Context:
When Jesus says “I am,” he is intentionally echoing the divine “I AM” found in Exodus 3:14, where God reveals himself to Moses.
Significance of All Caps:
Using all caps in this instance emphasizes the significance of the statement and highlights Jesus’ claim to deity
Chat GPT4 said:
If your translation emphasizes the divine identity of Jesus or aligns with the theological perspective that Jesus is intentionally referencing Exodus 3:14, using “I AM” in all caps is appropriate. Otherwise, “I am” is a standard rendering.
Robert (to my understanding):
There seems to be a contradiction.
On the one hand, some would say that the chief priests, elders, and scribes of the whole Sanhedrin in Mark’s story are a stand-in for the revolutionaries who opposed in Rome in the Judean War
Steefen
What Judean War during the lifetime of the Biblical Jesus??
What Insurrection during the lifetime of the Biblical Jesus?
Exodus 3:6 is another comparison of the generics case endings, although it is also in the vocative case.
However the philosophers reason that however something is not written in the vocative case is what it is.
I write this book to speak to nobody. I talk to myself. There is no such thing as the vocative case. 😴
What is the reasoning that Gospel Mark does not say Jesus=God?
Jesus=Angel (?)
Ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ Υἱοῦ Θεοῦ. (Berean 2016)
Ἀρχὴ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ θεοῦ (Stephanus 1550)
Mark 1:1 ** you do not have permission to see this link **
(του) makes a difference
Nah, well sometimes
Looks like Mark 1:1 is a huge textual variant. The phrase του Θεούis not even in the Codex Sinaitucus.
** you do not have permission to see this link **
Bonkers.
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
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