When I went to bible-hub
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The video is right: the Greek leaves out the definite article.
The video says when that’s done in Greek, use the indefinite article.
See below:
Literal Translations
Literal Standard Version
of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, do you say—You slander, because I said, I am [the] Son of God?
Berean Literal Bible
do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am Son of God’?
Young’s Literal Translation
of him whom the Father did sanctify, and send to the world, do ye say — Thou speakest evil, because I said, Son of God I am?
Smith’s Literal Translation
Whom the Father consecrated, and sent into the world, say ye that thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God.
For Discussion:
The Synod of Jamnia, held in 90 AD in Jamnia (also known as Yavneh), was a gathering of Jewish leaders that played a significant role in the development of Judaism after the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem. While some scholars believe it finalized the Hebrew Bible canon, others suggest it was primarily concerned with addressing immediate practical needs and preserving Jewish law and tradition.
The
Hebrew Bible Canon:
. While the exact role of the Synod of Jamnia in definitively closing the Hebrew Bible canon is debated, some scholars believe it was a significant step in this process, establishing the criteria for which books would be considered inspired.
Rejection of the Septuagint:
.
The Synod rejected the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, and the additional books included in it.
QUESTION: DID JOSEPHUS ATTEND THE SYNOD OF YAVNE/JAMNIA? My book’s scope stops at the death of Josephus, so, I could explore this.
Well, let’s see if we can get an answer to the first question of this thread.
What is the Best Greek-English New Testament translation used by Master’s students of the Divinity School?
1. NA28, Nestle-Aland, Novum Testamentum Graece 28th Edition.
2. SBLGNT – Society of Biblical Literature Greek New Testament (4 previous editions)
3. THGNT – Tyndale House, Cambridge
4. Placed Call to Yale Divinity School Library and the answer I got from a librarian was:
NRSV NIV Parallel NT in Greek and English >
Book Description:
The Interlinear NSRV-NIV Parallel New Testament is both a parallel and an inter-linear New Testament. What makes this volume unique is the use of two English translations that generally have a different readership: the New Revised Standard Version, published in 1989, and the New International Version, which has become the best-selling English Bible version. Alfred Marshall’s interlinear has become a standard tool for locating the Greek words behind specific passages in the New Testament and for easier reading of the Greek New Testament. The Greek text is the twenty-first edition of Nestle’s Novum Testamentum Graece. The interlinear English text is Marshall’s own literal translation. The test in the left-hand column is the NRSV text, complete with notes; the text in the right-hand column is the NIV text with notes.
dib=eyJ2IjoiMSJ9.-ujIm4R07wgT2sg96ZLsNiQIEu5y-yOH9VBx9f5MPFHGjHj071QN20LucGBJIEps.Po_5ukSAzJgrcj89zgviDzsJwS8M3EwOImo65o6lXSE&dib_tag=se&keywords=NRSV+NIV+Parallel+New+Testament+in+Greek+and+English&qid=1746554358&sprefix=nrsv+niv+parallel+new+testament+in+greek+and+english%2Caps%2C93&sr=8-1
Dr. Ehrman,
Question 1:
Do you have a preference for any of these four Greek-English New Testaments for graduate students?
1. Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, 28th Edition
2. Society of Biblical Literature Greek New Testament
3. Tyndale House [Cambridge] GNT
4. Yale Divinity School Library librarian said: The Interlinear NRSV-NIV Parallel New Testament in Greek and English by Alfred Marshall
Question 2:
The Bible Hub website says three Literal Translations of the Bible are:
Literal Standard Version
Berean Literal Bible
Young’s Literal Translation
John 10:36 King James Bible:
…because I said, “I am the Son of God”?
The above three literal translations do not use the definite article “the” Son of God.
Is it true that when New Testament Greek omits the definite article, use the indefinite article?
-OR-
translate the omission:
[I] blaspheme, because I said, ‘I am Son of God’?
Thank you,
Steve
Robert
I didn’t listen to all of both videos you posted. When one looks at the lack of definite article in this particular verse, it doesn’t really affect one’s interpretation of the whole gospel of John, let alone all of Christianity.
Steefen
I was double checking the translation rule.
a) If there is no definite article, do not translate it as if there is one.
b) use the indefinite article
c) translate it without an article
There are begotten sons and there are sons not begotten.
You have probably posted that Jewish kings were sons of their god.
Gospel of John does not have a nativity narrative but says Jesus was begotten by the god of Jesus.
Maybe Gospel of John is agreeing with the gospels that do have a nativity narrative.
Robert:
Steefen said
There are begotten sons and there are sons not begotten.
Can you be more specific? I’m not sure what you mean by sons that are not begotten.
You have probably posted that Jewish kings were sons of their god.
Are you speaking of anything I’ve posted in this thread?? It is indeed true that Jewish kings could be referred to as the son of God.
Steefen
That is what I remember: you posting in a past thread that Jewish kings could be referred to as the son of God. They were not begotten.
Comment 8
Question 1:
Do you have a preference for any of these four Greek-English New Testaments for graduate students?
1. Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, 28th Edition
2. Society of Biblical Literature Greek New Testament
3. Tyndale House [Cambridge] GNT
4. Yale Divinity School Library librarian said: The Interlinear NRSV-NIV Parallel New Testament in Greek and English by Alfred Marshall
Bart:
The Nestle-Alands is by far the preferred standard.
Question 2:
The Bible Hub website says three Literal Translations of the Bible are:
Literal Standard Version
Berean Literal Bible
Young’s Literal Translation
John 10:36 King James Bible:
…because I said, “I am the Son of God”?
The above three literal translations do not use the definite article “the” Son of God.
Is it true that when New Testament Greek omits the definite article, use the indefinite article?
-OR-
translate the omission:
[I] blaspheme, because I said, ‘I am Son of God’?
Bart:
The problem is that that’s not proper English [I am Son of God].
Greek does not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”) only a definite article (“the”), and the absence of the article is often an indication of indefiniteness, but not always.
There are many, many places where without the article the noun is definite. Translating it as “the Son of God” is just as literal a translation. Even “literal” translations require “interpretation.” There’s no way around it.
Steefen:
I saw a bird.
vs.
I saw the specific bird you described.
John 10-34:36
Jesus says judges were called gods.
A Jewish king has been called a son of god.
Where in the Bible is a Jewish king called a son of god?
In the Bible, specifically in 2 Samuel 7:14, God promises that one of King David’s descendants will be his “son”, and this son will be a king who will build a temple for God. This promise is further echoed in 1 Chronicles 17:13. The title “son of God” is also given to an unnamed king of Israel in Psalm 2:7. The phrase “son of God” is also used in other contexts in the Bible, including referring to angels (Job 1:6) and the nation of Israel (Exodus 4:22).
Jesus: why can’t I be a son of god? I have a god-given ministry. Didn’t John the baptist have authority from God?
God doesn’t give a person a calling, a ministry? There is no blasphemy here.
So is Jesus speaking generally (indefinite) like this?
OR
Is Jesus saying definitely, of all the sons of God, I am the specific son of God who was begotten because God impregnated Mary, his mother: I am the only begotten son which would be blasphemy because the Hebrew God is unlike Greek gods who have sex with humans.
If studying the Geneva and 1611 KJV for modern English grammar, get the Textus Receptus.
ISBN 978 1 86228 537 8
Old English does not have a Bible because there was no such thing as a Future Tense of verbs, everything would be in the Preterit tense (preterism apocalypse theology.)
If studying the English Standard Version for new/today progressive English grammar, textual criticism and interpolations get a NA28 interlinear.
ISBN 978 1 4335 3031 9
Both the TR and NA28 use the old Koine Greek.
***Non-Koine Greek translations***
If studying Katharenousa modern Greek get ISBN 978 1 86228 119 6.
If studying new-Greek demotika/today) get ISBN 960 7847 08 3.
I have all and can’t understand anything most the time unless strung out on coffee and wine.
Its certainly possible that the author was thinking of a virgin birth as he had read in the gospels of Matthew or Luke, but he adds to this the pre-existent Logos, which are not found in any of the synoptic gospels.
Yet interestingly John allows the claim that Joseph is Jesus’ father to go unchallenged twice, once by a friend and once by enemies.
Old English does not have a Bible because there was no such thing as a Future Tense of verbs…
Like many languages OE expressed futurity through context using the verb beon, “to be”. Portions of the Bible were in fact translated into OE. See the Wessex Gospels and the OE Hexateuch. Colin you have the same fact-checkers as our beloved president.
“John allows the claim that Joseph is Jesus’ father to go unchallenged twice, once by a friend and once by enemies”
Cf.
John 2:19-21 (Etheridge)
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Jeshu answered,
Destroy this temple,
and in three days I will raise it.
The Jihudoyee say to him,
Forty-and six years was this temple being built,
and wilt thou in three days raise it ?
But he spake of the temple of his body.
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
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