Peter has been traditionally thought to have been the author of I Peter. But how could he be the author if he was illiterate? I bring this up because one reason that is cited for Mark and Matthew likely not actually being the authors of their respective Gospels is that they were probably illiterate, and almost certainly not fluent in spoken and written Greek. Since Peter made his living as a fisherman I believe it’s very likely that he was also illiterate and certainly not capable of producing a polished written document in Greek like I Peter. So why is Peter thought to actually be the author of I Peter? And if he actually did write that epistle, doesn’t that suggest that Mark and Matthew may have also been capable of writing their Gospels?
Another reason besides the style to doubt Peter’s authorship is that the letter has a real Pauline flavor. Odd, since in Paul’s authentic letters when he mentions Peter they are often at loggerheads.
Some scholars speculate that 1 Peter might be an attempt by a later generation of Christians to harmonize Peter and Paul which at that point would have meant agreeing with Paul.
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