In my previous post I began to discuss the doctrine of the Trinity, which states that the godhead comprises three distinct persons, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, all of whom are completely and equally God, with no one superior to the others, all of whom have existed forever, and all of whom are of the same essence/substance. But these three are actually one. So there is only one God, but he is manifest in three persons.
I maintained in the post that this doctrine is not taught in the New Testament, but I pointed out there is one apparent exception, depending on which translation you are reading. In the King James Version you will find the following passage in the letter of 1 John:
There are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Spirit, and these three are one; and there are three that bear witness on earth, the Spirit, the water and the blood, and these three are one (1 John 5:7-8).
That first part does indeed sound like an early expression of the doctrine of the Trinity! (No other place in the NT does so – even though there are some passages that mention or allude to Father, Son, and Spirit, none of them takes the crucial step of saying that are all equally God and that “the three are one.”) So it *is* in the NT! Right?
No, probably wrong. 1 John 5:7 was not originally in the New Testament. It is a…
Now *this* is something you didn’t hear at your last cocktail party (Zoom or otherwise). Want to know more? Join the blog! Easy to do, doesn’t cost much, and every penny goes to charity. No downside!
Fascinating Bart.
Do we know then what might be the origin of the Greek text of 1 John 5:7 in the Complutensian Polyglot? Is it the same as that later inserted in the Textus Receptus? And does it correspond to the Greek text of verses 7 and 8, as stated by the Fourth Lateran Council in 1215?
That’s a great question, and I don’t have even a bad answer for it. I just don’t know. It *is* usually thought, though, that later Greek forms were translations from the Latin, and not Greek originals; so they were probably pretty close to what can be found in the Latin formulation.
Thanks Bart. I was particularly interested in tracking down the Greek form of 1 John 5:7-8 from the Fourth Lateran Council; as it is often referred to in discussions on the Comma, but I have never seen it quoted. But I would not be surprised if providing a copy of the ‘Acta’ of the Fourth Lateran Council, in Greek, might tax even the library resources of the University of North Carolina. When COVID permits, I may be able to find it better myself.
There is an extensive footnote to this passage in the Complutensian Polyglot; citing Thomas Aquinas on variations in the Latin text of 1 John 5:8; as observed in the 13th century. But it does not state where the Complutensian editors got their Greek text from. Perhaps from the Lateran Council Greek; but would the libraries in Alcala in 1500 have been that much better stocked than those in North Carolina today?
No doubt. But they would have been somewhat wanting in Victorian novels….
Gotcha!
“The passage from the Greek translation of the Acta is given in Martin, 1717, 138; Martin, 1722, 170; Horne, 1821, 4:505; Seiler, 1835, 616: ὅτι τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες ἐν οὐρανῷ, ὁ πατήρ, λόγος, καὶ πνεῦμα ἅγιον, καὶ τοὕτοι [sc. οὗτοι] οἱ τρεῖς ἕν εἰσιν. This reading resembles that in Codex Montfortianus (except for the omission of τῷ before οὐρανῷ and the insertion of the article ὁ, which apparently does duty for all three persons) so closely that we might suspect that the scribe of Montfortianus had consulted this document. There is a fifteenth-century Greek ms of the Acta of the Lateran Council in the Bodleian Library, but it is one of the Codices Barocciani, brought from Venice and given to the University in 1629 by Lord Pembroke”.
In a footnote to Grantley MacDonald’s thesis:
RAISING THE GHOST OF ARIUS; Erasmus, the Johannine Comma and Religious Difference in Early Modern Europe.
penaccess.leidenuniv.nl/bitstream/handle/1887/16486/Dissertation%20McDonald%20postprint.pdf?sequence=1
So the Codex Montfortianus and the Lateran text appear similar; where the Complutensian text differs. Erasmus implies – in his intemperate exchanges with Stunica – that the Complutensian text of the comma must be the editors’ own composition; whereas he was following an existing Greek text.
I”m afraid I’m not following your references and argument, and I’m afraid other users of the blog will be clueless what you mean by Acta; Martin 1717; Codex Montfortianus, etc….! Could you state your point simply for other readers?
Apologies Bart; and to other blog users.
As you point out, the key verse in Greek, 1 John 5:7, was first printed in 1514 in the New Testament volume of the Complutensian Polyglot. Strictly we don’t know that Greek reading for certain; as, after Erasmus had produced his own Greek New Testament in 1516, the Complutensian folio carrying this reading was ‘cancelled’; the replacement having inserted into it a footnote referring back to citation of this verse by the Fourth Lateran Council of 1215, with the clear intention of casting Erasmus’s text as implicitly heretical. Also, by implication, the Complutentisian editors were claiming Conciliar authority stood behind their reading.
But did it? Once Erasmus had determined (sometime before 1521) to add 1 John 5:7 into his third edition, the Complutensian Polyglot had yet to emerge – Erasmus could only guess its content from Stunica’s criticisms of his Greek text. And he noted that, while Stunica claimed the authority a Rhodian Apostolos Greek manuscript, at the university of Alcala, at a number of points where he took issue with Erasmus edition, the Rhodian codex was not cited for 1 John 5:7.
Erasmus guessed that Stunica – like him – had been unable to track down any Greek manuscript that supported 1 John 5:7. But there was another potential source; as the decisions (Acta) of the Fourth Lateran Council were known to have been translated into Greek. This would have presented any scholar with an authoritative Greek text for the verse. But – when we compare the revised Complutensian text with that in the Lateran Council Acta – they are very different.
Erasmus though had an ace up his sleeve, as his friend and ally John Clement had shown him a recently written Greek New Testament, the Codex Montfortianus, including this verse. This had been produced by Franciscan scholars, likely the gospels copied in Cambridge, and the epistles in Oxford (as that is where their manuscript sources were in 1516). And Oxford almost certainly then did house a copy of the Lateran Acta in Greek – in Duke Humfrey’s Library.
Erasmus did not trust the Codex Montfortianus – it had clearly been adjusted to the Vulgate – but he could now claim Greek authority for his text, where Stunica could not.
I”m not familiar with editors of Bibles relying on Acts of a church council to determine the working of the Greek text. Are you saying the Erasmus’s form of the verse is identical to it? That woud be interesting (though, of course, given teh concision of the verse there would not be that many ways to translate it I should think)
Erasmus’s text for 1 John 5:7 in his 3rd edition – is an exact reproduction of that in the Codex Montfortianus. Erasmus’s text for verse 8 adds the second ‘and these three are one’, which is absent in Montfortianus, but present in Erasmus’s other manuscript sources.
The copyist of Montfortianus took his text for 1 John from GA 326; a Greek manuscript of Acts and the Epistles – then as now in Lincoln College Oxford. But GA 326 lacked 1 John 5:7-8. It is possible that the copyist just back-translated these from the Vulgate on his own; but the resulting text is fairly close to that from the Lateran Council translation (including omitting the second ‘and these three are one’). Recall that from Lincoln College library it was perhaps 30 yards to the Duke Humfrey. Maybe the copyist had consulted the Lateran text there.
Whereas both the other two late medieval back-translations of these two verses from the Vulgate – GA 629 of the mid 14th Century, and the revised Complutensian text, are very different – both from one another and Montfortianus; albeit that the Complutensian also omits the second ‘and these three are one’.
Interesting. Thanks. Why do you suppose the scribe of Montfortianus didn’t simply replicate the Council’s translation and then add “these three are one”?
My view is that two arguments from silence were driving scholarly assessment of this verse in the early 16th century.
Erasmus appears very early to have been convinced by one such argument; the silence of the Greek fathers (especially Cyril) in not citing 1 John 5:7 in support of their defence of the doctrine of the Trinity.
But at the same time, nobody before Erasmus in the Latin Church seems to have noted this as a consistent variant; Lorenzo Valla, in particular, had never recorded it. Erasmus seems to have started with the expectation that the variant, though likely not original, would nevertheless be found in some Greek manuscripts. Which indeed it was; just very rarely.
So, the Franciscan copyist of the Epistles section of Montfortianus might not have had any expectation that the Lincoln college manuscript GA 326 would lack verse 7. He may have checked in the Duke Humfrey for the authoritative Greek form of verse 8 in the Acta of the Lateran Council; but then when he inspected GA 326 in Lincoln library and found it deficient in verse 7, he chose to remedy that defect from memory.
Apologies, Bart. for taking two bites at the cherry.
Have you seen this recent post from Elijah Hixson on the Evangelical Textual Criticism blog?
http://evangelicaltextualcriticism.blogspot.com/2020/01/the-greek-manuscripts-of-comma.html
He provides images for all the Greek manuscript evidence for the 1 John 7 text. But chiefly from the perspective of the 1550 Textus Receptus form of the Greek. As I read it, he proposes that Erasmus took the text in his 3rd edition from the Codex Montfortianus; and that the revised form of words in his 4th and subsequent editions were his own improvements. The Codex Montfortianus text for this verse he suggests as due to its copyist, as it is not in GA 326 which was otherwise his exemplar for the Catholic epistles; and is a back-translation from the late Vulgate latin.
But, Hixson does not discuss the Complutensian text, nor the Greek translation of the Lateran Council latin text. He proposes that the Greek text of this verse in GA 629 of 1362/3 as the only one that clearly predates 1500; and is another back-translation from the Vulgate, differing greatly from that in Codex Montfortianus. Can you offer more details?
Very interesting. He’s a bright guy, but I really don’t know how to evaluate his claims. I wonder if he will be publishing his piece.
Dr Ehrman. Has anyone ever thought that the author of John was a liar?? I think he was.
Many have thought that he was lying about his identity. My personal view is taht the author does not claim to be John or the Beloved Disciple. But if you mean was he lying about what he wrote, I doubt it. My sense is that what he said is what he really thought. (A lie isn’t something that is not true; it’s something that the speaker/writer says that he/she *thinks* or *knows* is untrue)
What a great post. The story of The Comma is very fun, but this post is such a perfect example of your writing that is both highly informative and super accessible to just about anyone who is interested in the material. Happy new year!
Just a quick point that I would like to share…My name is Sheikh Farooq. What is often overlooked and not appreciated by Western academia is that the continuation and companion/commentary of the Holy Bible or it’s eastern counter-part, the Holy Qur’an, does rebuke the innovation of the Trinity found in 1 Jn 5:7. We see that in Qur’an 4:171 which was written some 1,100 years before the science of biblical studies/criticism even began with let’s say Benedict Spinoza in the 17th century!
Qur’an 4:171, to paraphrase, says that: Jesus was only “the son of Mary” and essentially a prophet! Factual and historical datum here. The verse also says: “Say not Three (i.e. the Trinity): desist, IT IS BETTER FOR YOU.” Meaning, “it is better” for all of us who revere Jesus to see him AS HE REALLY WAS IN LIFE. And that is that was a true servant of God, not the mythology of God incarnate (within a triune godhead)!!!! That is the underlying reason here, aside from the corruption of biblical text, to not include the Trinity in the Bible. Out of respect to a murdered human being who belongs to human history. THE HUMAN FACTOR must come into focus. Amen.
Where the quran failed was that the author thought that the trinity contains God, Jesus and Mary. So if you are trying to say that the quran is a miracle from god, I have to disappoint you. The quran is man made, like the bible
Isn’t the original 1 John 5:7-8, without the comma johanneum, still trinitatrian?
“There are three bearing witness, the spirit the water and the blood, and these three in one are”.
1 John 5:6 says Jesus did not come by water only but by water and blood. ie Jesus was not just born of god but born of flesh too. God is the water, Jesus is the blood.
1 John 5:9 says “If we accept the testimony of men, God’s testimony is greater”
This is an allusion to “accept the testimony of 2 or 3 witnesses” – ie these 2 or 3 witnesses are the testimony of God so we should certainly believe it.
Three witnesses, who are God, who are three in one.
If you think spirit water and blood do not mean spirit water and blood, but Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, then I suppose you could see a trinity there. The water and blood show up elsewhere in 1 John (and John’s Gospel) and do not mean Father, Son, or Spirit, but … water and blood.
Fascinating.
Let’s examine the basic theory here!
“doctrine of the Trinity … three distinct persons … all of whom are completely and equally God … existed forever … same essence/substance. ..actually one .. three persons.”
A lot of conjectural extrapolation is needed to make the heavenly witnesses fit the above. 🙂
=====
In the first centuries the heavenly witnesses could easily be rejected as Sabellian, non-Trinitarian.
As pointed out by various scholars, including Edward Freer Hills (1912-1981).
Hills Revisited (2003) Jon Whitmer:
And since the Sabellian heresy was especially extensive among the Greek-speaking Church, this theory explains why the Johannine Comma might not have continued in the Greek NT, while being “preserved in the Latin texts of Africa and Spain, where the influence of Sabellianism was probably not so great.” – Edward F. Hills, The King Janies Version Defended ” –
Full longer Edward Freer Hills section:
https://www.purebibleforum.com/index.php?threads/scholars-theorizing-that-the-sabellian-controversies-contributed-to-the-greek-ms-line-drop.671/#post-8218
=======
Note this from Eusebius of Caesarea:
τὸ δὲ αὐτὸν εἶναι τοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ λόγου πατέρα, καὶ υἱὸν αὐτοῦ τὸν ἐν αὐτῷ λόγον, τῆς Σαβελλίου κακοδοξίας ἦν γνώρισμα, 3.4.1 ὡς αὖ πάλιν καὶ τὸ λέγειν τὰ τρία ἓν εἶναι, τὸν πατέρα καὶ τὸν υἱὸν καὶ τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα· Σαβελλίου γὰρ καὶ τοῦτο.
“[To say] that the Father is the same as the Word inside him, and that his Son is the Word inside him is the mark of the heresy of Sabellius. So again also the saying that the Three are One, the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit; for this is also of Sabellius.”
Eusebius of Caesarea (260-340 AD), De Ecclesiastica Theologia Book 3 Chapter III to Chapter IV
Migne Graeca, PG 24 [1001D to 1004A]
Frederick Nolan theorized his opposition to “three are one” in 1815.
The water and the blood are testifiers – so they must be symbolic of something else. The three testifiers are one and this one is God. 1 John 5:9.
1 John 1:7 says the blood of his son jesus christ purifies us from all sin.
2 John says its a heresy to say Jesus did not come in the flesh. 1 John 5:6 says Jesus came by water and blood not by water only. ie born of god means come by water. God is water.
This testimony is God’s testimony about his Son. John 8 has Jesus say “I testify about myself and my father testifies about me”.
The comma johanneum just makes explicit what was implicit in the original.
That’s certainly what the scribe who inserted it thought.
But mustn’t “the water and the blood” be symbolic of something? (the water and the blood can’t be testifiers)
and aren’t the only two candidates the father and Jesus?
IF there were the only two options then most interpreters would say that’s what they mean. But so far as I know, that’s not an interpretation usually given foro the passage. Ever? I don’t know of any place where “water'” is a symbol for God. In the OT, for exmample, water is often the entity *opposed* to God, that God has to overcome for the salvation of his people. (Genesis 1 — he overcomes water by putting in the firmament; 6-9 water threatens the human race; exodus, the sea must be conquered for savltion , etc.)
What I mean is that there are only two candidates for who, along with the spirit, are three-in-one. The only question is why they’re symbolized with water and blood.
The gift of God is the living water. Jesus is born out of God (1 John 5:1), but he did not come by water only but by water and blood. (Not just born of God but came in the flesh too).
The spirit the water and the blood symbolize eternal life.
“Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life”. ie – if they don’t have the son they’re missing part of the three-in-one, which is “the true God and eternal life”.
What else can this three-in-one be?
It just mean they all agree in attesting the same reality. When I was a born-again Christian we used to sing a song in a worship spirit “We are one in the Spirit, we are one in the Lord.” But we didn’t think we were part of a Trinity. It just means we were all united, one.
The Father the Word and the Holy Spirit might be said to be three testifiers who are one in agreement.
But the spirit the water and the blood combine to one. And this is eternal life. And the true God.
Even though, as you correctly point out (and no one on the planet disagrees – at least no one who has actually read the Bible) the trinity is never used in the NT, 1 John 5:7 is not in any early Greek text, and no one verse explicitly says the three of them are one, the John Gospel most certainly portrays JC as God. You know this very well, although you believe the John gospel represents a developed christology, and therefore little of it is useful in seeing who Jesus was, what he taught etc.. Still though, John is in the NT, and therefore, the NT does indeed portray Jesus as God, in the flesh.
But the Spirit of God… hmmm… is this an example of Paul equating God with God’s Spirit? 1 Cor. 2:11, “For what human being knows what is truly human except the human spirit that is within? So also no one comprehends what is truly God’s except the Spirit of God.” NRSV, amid their gender inclusive handcuffs. Humans have a spirit/God has a spirit. Am I correct on this? ?
I’d say a lot of fundamentalists disagree! Paul seems to understand teh Spirit as an entity separate from God (the Father), who represents God here on earth, indwelling his people and empowering them. Humans too have a spirit for Paul.
I recall in one of your podcasts a while back about the “Holy Spirit”, it’s essence and how it became the third part of the Trinity. You mentioned that the Holy Spirit is referenced in the Hewbrew Bible such as Genesis 1:1 and the “Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.”
The ancient Hebrews did not consider this a deity otherwise leading to a “Duality” The Holy Spirit was viewed as an agent of God of some sort.
Why would the early Christians instead not formulate a “Duality” with just God the Father and Son, knowing that the theology of the Jews in their present day did not view the Holy Spirit as equal to God the Father? Was the number 3 near and dear to the ancients?
That may be part of it. But it may also be because of some of the things said in the NT, e.g., in John 14 and 16, and Acts 2, about the Spirit.
One last quick point…talking about the eschew of the scriptural and theological notion of the Trinity from the NT raises two very important questions. No. 1: Who was the historical Jesus? No. 2: What did he believe (and what did he teach based on his personal beliefs)? The answer lies in the first gospel of Mark.
Jesus was an apocalyptic sage, a Jewish peasant and slave of the Roman Empire born and raised in Nazareth, Palestine. He probably became inspired by the Baptist (end of timer) in Jordan according to Mark 1 to fulfill Scripture. He then started a messianic movement (following other messianic movements or Jewish revolts in his locality). What he believed and taught based on his belief is summed up in Mark 12 :30-31:”Love God” totally or surrender unto Him and “Love Thy Neighbor.” Or quite simply, love one another.
The most crucial understanding of the historical Jesus appears in Mark 12:29. Jesus recites his attestation of faith called the Shema: “Hear, O Israel; The Lord OUR GOD is one Lord.” NO WHERE does Jesus equate himself with God (or a triune deity). In fact, this verse does not reappear in the NT for a good and obvious reason! Notice also that it’s totally contradictory to the dogmatic 1 Jn 5:7!!
Just wondering Bart. In Jesus’ day and the Roman Empire and so forth, there were many languages as I understand. The Romans spoke Latin, Jesus spoke Aramaic, the Jews Hebrew and of course Greek was around as well. Was communicating to one another a problem, considering the different languages or were they a multi-lingual society?
Greek was the lingua franca, kinda like English is today. The educated folk could speak it wherever they traveled. And the uneducated folk didn’t travel. So it worked OK on the whole.
Bart,
Most of us have heard of — if not actually met — old-timers who seemed to think the KJ version was the ‘real’ Bible (what’s the old joke…”if it (the KJ) was good enough for Jesus, it’s good enough for me!”?). I suspect that part of their rejection of newer translations – in addition to lack of familiarity – might be that key verses like this one (1 John 5:7) were ‘missing’. That ‘familiarity’ was no small factor, of course. Even today, I think many people sort of imagine God actually speaking in the language of ‘thou’, ‘thee’, and ‘thine’.
Are there other substantive examples of key verses that were in the KJ but missing in 20th-century versions? If so, that might make for an interesting post.
Yup, I talk about that a bit in my book Misquoting Jesus. Most famously: the woman taken in adultery and the last twelve verses of Mark. A lot of modern translations keep these passages, even though the translators know they were not originally in the text, because they don’t want to offend people.
Sorry to go off topic, but there was a letter in today’s edition of The Tablet magazine which claimed that Israeli scholars, D Flusser and S Safrai, had shown that there was evidence that an institution of consecrated Temple virgins existed in the Second Temple period. The letter writer was keen to promote the possibility that the Virgin Mary could have been one of them. I thought that this idea (which I understand comes from the apocryphal gospels) had no basis in historical fact. What are your thoughts on this claim please, Dr Ehrman?
Well, those are a couple of incredibly intelligent people, but I don’t know of any evidence, no. The “evidence” of Mary beign a consecrated virgin starts with the Proto-Gospel of James; but anyone who takes *that* account as historical has some serious explaining to do….
Dr. Ehrman… Have you ever thought about writing a study Bible? Or at least the New Testament like with notes on some of this historical significance? I know the christian community may not like it but I think it would be great. You could explain some of the textual changes and contradictions and so forth. Steve Wells did a Skeptics Bible but I think it’s pretty bad more judgmental than accurate. Just an idea and if you’ve already done it I’m sorry for being ignorant. Also have you ever read Steve Wells Skeptics Bible and what do you think?
No, I never have! And I doubt if I ever will… I haven’t read Wells’s work.
The Skeptics Bible must be on the Catholic Church’s list of forbidden books!
Dr. Ehrman,
As a so-called “biblical Unitarian” Christian, I am very interested in the topic of whether the doctrine of the trinity is taught in the Christian Bible. Thank you for tackling this topic from your perspective.
I’m curious: do you think the 27 books of the Christian NT, in their original forms, present a *coherent* teaching on the nature and relationship of the Father, Son, and Spirit? Or, do you think that different books present different teachings on this?
I think they present very different views of the relationship of God and Christ and that none of them thinks much about the relationship of the three; it’s not clear if most of them even think in terms of “three”
Dr. Bart – This is a wonderful thread. Thank you from a newcomer to your blog.
The idea of polyglot bibles thrills me. I have a parallel Bible of Greek facing 7 English translations and an English synoptic parallel in three columns. Otherwise I’ve had to cyber-flip among the many online editions of the Bible in English, my college languages of Greek and Latin, my high school German and French, and my later-life Japanese.
Are you aware of affordable and reliable polyglot bibles worth investing in?
I’m not! I haven’t looked at one for 40 years probably; but if you learn of one, let me know!
Bart: “Pope Leo X finally sanctioned it in 1520 (now that I think about it, I don’t know why it took so long)”
The clever Erasmus, one of my predecessors in Leuven, had obtained in 1516 from both Emperor Maximilian and Pope Leo X exclusive publishing rights for four years.
It looks like many things that were written about Jesus; if not all were made up and/or altered to make him look like God. I firmly believe now that the New Testament is not the word of God but in the past I was confused. I do not know what to believe about Jesus miracles in the New Testament . I was thinking that if the writers made up many of what is said about Jesus or even the content was altered for several reasons over the years they could have also made up the miracles that he supposedly did. I believe that if God had come here in Jesus he would have MADE SURE that everyone BELIEVED in him; including everyone that read the New Testament IF IT WAS GOD’S WORD which I am convinced it is not.
The Question I have is: where can I find accurate information about what JUDAISM; meaning the Jews say about the Miracles of Jesus; Does judaism (the Jews) of the time acknowledged that Jesus did miracles? I read something that says that TALMUD mentions in 2 places that Jesus was a sorcerer or a magician…
https://voice.dts.edu/article/did-jesus-fake-his-miracles-del-rosario-mikel/
Of course different Jews had different views of Jesus. Some few became convinced and became his followers; these thought Jesus reall did miracles. Others did claim that he was a magician. You get that centuries later in the Talmud, but the idea tha tJews spread this slander against Jesus is already mentioned int he middle of the second century by Justin. You might want to check out Peter Shaeffers’s book Jesus in the Talmud.
Dr Ehrman – About St Thomas Gospel, acts and other ‘Gospels’ attributed to them. when where this written
The Gospel of Thomas may be as early as 120 or so. Other Acts and Gospels start showing up at the end of the second and beginning of the third centuries.
Hi Bart!
I wanted to ask about Luke 13:33 and if it’s a failed prophecy or not, as Jesus died outside of Jerusalem?
Thank You.
Hope you have a good day.
I don’t think Jesus himself really said it; Luke who did say it knew where Jesus was killed, and like so many others thought that someone condemned within the walls but exectued outside of them thought the person was killed “in” Jerusalem. It just means “in wider Jeruslaem”
How are you supposed to read the entire article? I’m logged in and everything
I”m not sure what problem you’re having. If you’ll contact Support (click on “Help”) my assistant can figure it out for you.
I”m having the same issue as Hoju. I’m a long-time member; logged in, but your blog posts are being truncated as if I were a non-member.
Help?
Please send a note to Support (click “Help”) and our tech guy Ben will figure it out for you.
Tom Hennell
“after Erasmus had produced his own Greek New Testament in 1516, the Complutensian folio carrying this reading was ‘cancelled’; the replacement having inserted into it a footnote referring back to citation of this verse by the Fourth Lateran Council of 1215, with the clear intention of casting Erasmus’s text as implicitly heretical. ”
Hi Tom, greetings!
This cancel-sheet theory from Michael Andrew Screech, given in Grantley Robert McDonald’s paper, Raising the Ghost of Arius, on p. 88, is almost surely not correct. Grantley hinted at the problem in the footnote:
“My examination of the watermarks in the copy in the Bibliothèque nationale de France did not
reveal any conclusive evidence.”
There was even a recent discussion on Twitter on this question, which really helped in the studies!
You may have to jump around a bit, check the info here:
Pure Bible Forum
Summary – Complutensian Polyglot – Michael Screech cancel-sheet hypothesis countered by Ignacio García Pinilla
https://www.purebibleforum.com/index.php?threads/summary-complutensian-polyglot-michael-screech-cancel-sheet-hypothesis-countered-by-ignacio-garc%C3%ADa-pinilla.1909/
======================================
And if you, or anyone, needs the English of the Complutensian note, A. J. McDonald, Jr. placed that on his blog from William Orme.
https://theworldperceived.blogspot.com/2019/08/translation-of-marginal-note-at-1-john.html
Which was related to the ETC discussion:
Putting to Rest an Old Canard about Erasmus
https://evangelicaltextualcriticism.blogspot.com/2019/07/putting-to-rest-old-canard-about-erasmus.html?showComment=1569453275401#c5457752314960002948
======================================
Steven Avery
Dutchess County, NY, USA