Now that I have discussed the major themes and emphases of the Acts of the Apostles, I can summarize what (I think) we can know about its author, when he wrote, and why.
As I’ve indicated, Acts is the second volume of a two-volume work by the anonynmous author of the Gospel of Luke. In my discussion of the Gospel I’ve show why the traditional view that the author was Luke the gentile physician, a traveling companion of Paul, is probably not right. In case you want to read/reread the post, it is here: https://ehrmanblog.org/the-gospel-of-luke-who-wrote-it-when-and-why/
There I point out what I’ve repeatedly argued on the blog, that in virtually every instance in which the book of Acts can be compared with Paul’s letters in terms of biographical detail, differences emerge. Some of these differences are minor – the kinds of things a friend might just get wrong; others are major and show that the author misunderstands or at least mischaracterizes Paul on significant issues, in ways hard to explain if he was closely associated with him.
I didn’t go into a lot of detail on these differences in that earlier post, so I want to provide more information here. I won’t bother with the minor disagreements (did Paul go to Athens by himself, without Timothy, as in Acts 17:13-16,; 18:5; or did Timothy go with him, as Paul indicates in 1 Thessalonians 3:1?). My interests involve differences that seem to matter a good deal.
For example, Paul is quite emphatic in the epistle to the Galatians that after he had his vision of Jesus and came to believe in him he did *not* go to Jerusalem to consult with the apostles (1:15-18). This is an important issue for him, because he wants to prove to the Galatians that his gospel message did not come from Jesus’ followers in Jerusalem (the original disciples and the church around them) but from Jesus himself. His point is that he has not corrupted a message that he received from someone else; his gospel came straight from God, with no human intervention. The book of Acts, of course, provides its own narrative of Paul’s conversion. In this account, strikingly enough, Paul does exactly what he claims *not* to have done in Galatians: after leaving Damascus some days after his conversion, he goes directly to Jerusalem and meets with the apostles (Acts 9:10-30).
It is possible, of course, that Paul himself has altered the real course of events in order to show that he *couldn’t* have received his gospel message from other apostles because he never consulted with them. If he did stretch the truth on this matter, though, his statement of Gal 1:20 takes on a new poignancy — “In what I am writing to you, before God, I do not lie” — for in fact his lie in this case would have been bald-faced. It is probably better, then, to see the discrepancy as deriving from Luke, whose own agenda affected the way he told the tale. For him, as we have seen, it was important to show that Paul stood in close continuity with the views of the original followers of Jesus, because *all* the apostles were unified in their perspectives. Thus he portrays Paul as consulting with the Jerusalem apostles and representing the same faith that they proclaimed.
And so the big question: would a companion of Paul really not know the sequence of events that Paul considered to be of such vital importance?
There are other issues that involve the bigger picture that Acts draws of Paul. As I pointed out in the previous post, Acts shows Paul standing in harmony with the original apostles of Jesus, no major conflicts at all on any major issue. Paul portrays matters very differently, especially in Galatians 2, where he has to convince the Jerusalem apostles of his views (in contrast to Acts 10-15) and ends up in a knock-down-drag-out argument with Peter about them (you won’t find *that* in Acts!).
Moreover, Acts indicates that Paul throughout his entire mission stayed faithful to all all of the essentials of Judaism, maintaining an absolute devotion to the Jewish Law. To be sure, he proclaims that Gentiles do not need to keep this Law, since for *them*, it would be an unnecessary burden. He himself, however, remains a good Jew to the end, keeping the Law in every respect. When he is arrested for violating the Law, Luke goes out of his way to show that the charges are altogether trumped-up (chs. 21-22). As Paul himself repeatedly asserts throughout his apologetic speeches in Acts, he has done nothing contrary to the Law (e.g., 28:17).
What about Paul in his own writings? Paul’s view of the Law is extremely complicated. Several points, however, are reasonably clear. First, in contrast to the account in Acts, Paul appears to have had no qualms about violating the Jewish Law when the situation required him to do so. In Paul’s words, he could live not only “like a Jew” when it served his purposes, but also “like a Gentile” — for example, when it was necessary for him to convert Gentiles (1 Cor 9:21). On one occasion, he attacked the apostle Cephas for failing to do so himself (Gal 2:11-14).
In addition, Paul did *not* see the Law merely as an unnecessary burden for Gentiles, something that they didn’t have to follow but could if they chose. For Paul, it was an absolute and total affront for Gentiles to follow the Law, a complete violation of his gospel message. In his view, Gentiles who did so were in jeopardy of falling from God’s grace. For if doing what the Law required could contribute to a person’s salvation, then Christ died completely in vain (Gal 2:21; 5:4). This is scarcely the conciliatory view attributed to Paul in Acts.
Again, would a companion of Paul really not understand such a crucial feature of the apostle’s views, one that stood at the very core of his Gospel message?
These are some of the reasons critical scholars have long doubted that the author of Acts was not Paul’s traveling companion.
When was the anonymous author writing? Since Acts is a companion volume to Luke, and since Luke is usually dated to 80-85 CE or so, it has long been thought that Acts was written soon after that, some time before 90 CE. In recent decades, however, some scholars (especially Josephus scholar Steve Mason and Acts scholar Richard Pervo) have argued that the author of Acts knew the writings of the Jewish historian Josephus, that some portions of Acts show dependence on Josephus’s Antiquities of the Jews, produced in 93 CE. They have suggested a later date of up to 120 CE for Acts.
A number of scholars have found this view persuasive, but I’m afraid I do not. I’m not opposed to it in principle; but I don’t think there’s much support for it. About a month ago I decided to I re-read their arguments carefully, and again I found them interesting but rather thin.
Between Acts and Josephus you don’t find anything like the verbatim agreements in extenso that make you think, for example, that Matthew used Mark. What you find are some oddities they share, e.g., they both discuss the Jewish rebels Theudas and Judas the Galilean, and in that order, even though chronologically Judas was much earlier. That is indeed intriguing – and they see it as their strongest piece of evidence – but there are obviously ways to explain it other than literary dependence.
If Acts was written in 120 CE, one would then have to decide what to do about the Gospel of Luke. Was it written that late as well, by the same author? That’s hard to imagine, since it may well be quoted earlier, around 100 CE (by the Didache), as I pointed out. Was Acts written by a different author who was trying to imitate the Gospel written three decades earlier, so they are not actually companion volumes? Possibly. Did Luke write the volume two decades later? Maybe.
My view, though, is that there’s no compelling reason to date it that late. I still think it dates to the 80s.
That said, why did the author write it? The only way to know is to infer motives from the account itself. Among the author’s reasons, I should think the following are likely.
- To show Christians that the amazing spread of their religion derived from divine intervention through the Holy Spirit.
- To celebrate the importance of Paul, possibly among Christian communities who were dubious about him (since Paul himself indicates that even within his own communities he had lots of enemies)
- To show that the law-free mission to the gentiles came straight from God, that it was not just Paul’s idea, and that all the apostles were 100% on board with it from the outset.
- To show that the true Gospel represents the teachings of Jesus himself, that people need to repent and turn to God so he will forgive them, not that Jesus’ death brought an atonement for sins. Jesus’ death revealed how sinful humans were and once they realized that, they could turn to God for forgiveness.
- To explain why the end of the age had not yet come. It was not supposed to come yet. All along it had been the plan of God for the world to be saved. That required the Christian mission to gentiles, which would take some time. But when the mission is completed, the end will then certainly come.
Paul emphasizes Jesus’s crucifixion as an atoning sacrifice while Acts seems to present it more as an unjust execution that God reverses through resurrection. Where would you say this contrast is most evident?
Also, in Acts, Jesus is frequently called the “Servant of God” rather than “Son of God,” which Paul uses more often. How does this reflect a different Christological understanding?
1. One good way is to contrast what Paul says in Romans 3 with what he says, e.g., in his speech in Acts 13. Both talk about how one obtains salvation.
2. It’s hard to say. Son of God is also an important term in Luke-Acts.
Scribal error alert:
“To show that the law-free mission to the gentiles came straight from God, that it was just Paul’s idea…”
Presumably this should read “…that is was NOT just Paul’s idea…”
Ouch
I’m taking a slight detour from the subject with this question. But this weekend I saw a podcast from History Valley where they interviewed Dr. Nina Livesey from the University of Oklahoma. She is coming out with a book where she states she believes Paul never existed and therefore the letters weren’t written by him. If I understood right, she believes the letters were written much later than most NT scholars believe. Bart, I don’t think you’re with her on this, so I guess you disagree. My question: is her thesis gaining any ground with other NT scholars? Or is he on an island by herself.
I’ve never heard of her or her book until another grad student mentioned her to me. I can’t imagine that serious scholars of antiquity will take it seriously, but I haven’t seen her argument. Whatever it is, it seems like you could make it for most any ancient author. How do we know Plato existed? Or Josephus? Now that I think of it, do we know that she exists? 🙂
“— “In what I am writing to you, before God, I do not lie” — for in fact his lie in this case would have been bald-faced.”
Paul states “I do not lie” or a similar phrase at least five times. It seems that if someone needs to repeatedly defend themselves from lying, that there might be some lying happening.
I assume many of his listeners had an issue with his claims of visions and a personal message from God/Christ.
On one hand, you suggest that Luke aimed to show Paul’s continuity with the original apostles by portraying him as consulting with them and standing in close continuity with their views. However, you then question whether a companion of Paul would be unaware of the sequence of events that Paul considered crucial.
It seems to me that you’ve already provided the answer: Luke, as Paul’s companion, likely knew the sequence of events but intentionally altered it to emphasize the unity between Paul and the other apostles. How does that entail that Luke didn’t know Paul?
I don’t think there’s any evidence to suggest that Luke knew the sequence of events in Paul’s life. Why would that be an assumption? (If someone gives you directions for getting to the local farmer’s market but their directions are wrong, why would you assume they knew the correct ones but intentionally gave the wrong ones?)
The assumption that Luke was familiar with the overall chronology of Paul’s life stems from Acts’ portrayal of Luke as Paul’s traveling companion. This close association would have likely kept Luke informed about key events in Paul’s life.
Luke’s account in Acts diverges from the chronological sequence found in Paul’s letters because Luke aimed to portray a unified and harmonious relationship between Paul and the other apostles. As you yourself stated: “it was important to show that Paul stood in close continuity with the views of the original followers of Jesus.”
Luke prioritizes depicting a unified relationship between Paul and the apostles over strictly adhering to historical accuracy or chronological order, so he gave the wrong directions.
If someone claimed to be a local and gave me incorrect directions to the farmers market, my initial suspicion might be that they were unfamiliar with the area. However, if I later discovered that they did not want me to see a specific landmark that was en route to the farmers market, I would reconsider my assumption. Instead, I would think that they knowingly avoided that landmark for a particular reason, rather than being ignorant of the directions.
What do you make of the argument apologists make for an early dating of Luke-Acts, something like ‘Paul and Peter’s deaths aren’t described in Acts, when we should expect the author would record such an important event. Therefore, Acts was written before either of them died.’
Yes, I used to argue that too, but I think it’s a very weak argument if you actually pay close attentoin to one of the major themes of Luke-Acts, that since God was driving the Christian mission nothing could stop it or the apostles engaged in it. Paul, in parcitular can’t be stopped, even if you stone him to death, or imprison him, or whatever. The author is not about to mention that he was stopped in his tracks. It appears clear that Luke knows that Jerusalem was destroyed, that he was writing after Mark which also knew that, and it seems pretty clear that Paul (Luke’s hero) had never read either one of them. So I think it’s more likely that Luke was written after Paul’s death.
This apologetic argument if applied to the ending of mark would imply mark was written before any ressurection story since mark does not mention anyone seeing jesus.
Mark has a story of the resurrection, just not of resurrectoin appearances (not the same thing!). But he presupposes knowledge of resurrection appearances, in Galilee.
>just not of resurrectoin appearances
Apologist say why acts does not mention death of paul-
“Must be WRITTEN before pauls DEATH”
cant one APPLY the same to mark?
“must have been written BEFORE ressurection APPEARANCES”?
I don’t think they’re right about Acts: there wsa a very good reason for Luke to end his account when he did: his entire perspective is that NOTHING could stop Paul, as seen throughout his narrative; he’s not going to narrate the incident that did indeed stop him. Plus, LOTS of histories stop at a key point. It doesn’t mean they didn’t know what happened next. Think of modern political histories.
Mark could not have been written before any of the appearances, since in Luke Jesus appears to his followers on the SAME DAY as the resurrection, and then ascends to heaven, that same day.
Your view that Acts was not written by a companion of Paul is based entirely on Galatians, it seems. You really really really do need to read my “Paul, Timothy, Jerusalem and the confusion in Galatia” Biblica (2018). If you cannot keep up with the scholarship you should make it clear to your readers that you are not an expert.
My view about Acts is not at all based entirely on Galatians, as you surely know, since I repeatedly refer to contrasts with Romans, 1 Thessalonians, Philippians, not just in my popular writings but even more in my serious scholarship, whether or not you think my book Forgery and Counterforgery is the work of an amateur.
More important, I’d prefer we not engage in ad hominem attacks on the blog.
Fair enough. I should have written “The case you make in this blog post is based entirely on Galatians, it seems.” But you DO need to keep up with the scholarship.
I’m not making a case for scholars. I’m explaining one of the key points for non-scholars in terms that make sense. But I do appreciate the exhortation. (!)
I’m merging several topics here to ask a question. We know that the author of Acts and the Gospels relied on some oral traditions. We also know that many apocryphal texts recording the life of Jesus rely on oral traditions. Some stories are most likely fabricated. My question:
Are any of the stories repeated in both the apocryphal texts and the Gospels plus perhaps Acts? For example, do the apocryphal texts record the birth narrative similar to the Gospels? Or the healing narratives? Or feeding the multitudes, or crucifixion narratives?
Obviously, I haven’t read the apocryphal texts. But if stories in the Gospels are not also in at least one apocryphal text – probably should be more than one, then doesn’t that indicate that oral traditions/stories either were not very pervasive or that they are not really oral stories; rather just fabricated? In the case of the Gospels, fabricated by Mark then copied by the other Gospels writers?
This argument can be reversed i.e. stories that originate in the apocryphal texts should also appear in at least one Gospel and possibly Acts.
Yes, it happens. The story of Jesus as a twelve year old in the Temple from Luke 2 is repeated in the Infancy Gospel of Thomas. Numerous other stories are repeated in apocryphal materials. But these are almost certainly taken from the previous Gospels, not the oral tradition. What we do have in apocyryhahl gospels are TONS of stories not in the canonical Gospels. Clearly these came from somewhere. Possibly every author made them up themselves, but given the fact that we are talking about principally an oral culture, it seems almost certain that hundreds/thousands of stories are in circulation.
>What we do have in apocyryhahl gospels are TONS of stories not in the canonical Gospels. Clearly these came from somewhere
did the story come from the writing or did the story PREDATE the writing?
Did the fire in jordan river come from the writing or did the church father make it up?
Did lukes story about jesus eating fish come from the mind of luke or did it come from disagreeing with other christians about what type of body jesus rose in?
Oral stories had to predate writing of stories because stories about Jesus were being told while he was still alive, as is true of all historical figures.
“I still think it dates to the 80s.”
“To show Christians that the amazing spread of their religion…”
By the 80s, was Christianity spread enough to consider that spread ‘amazing’?
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Regarding why Luke’s gospel and Acts were considered the works of Luke even though both were anonymous,
I think some early Christians, based on the gospel, Acts, and 2 Timothy, made the following reasoning:
1) They made the link between the gospel and Acts, concluding that the same author wrote both.
2) The author of Acts was a companion of Paul (the ‘we passages’) and remained with him during his last two years in Rome (Acts 28:14-31).
3) In 2 Timothy 4:11, allegedly written in Paul’s last days, he explicitly says, “Only LUKE is with me.”
So… Luke was the author!!!
I’m not saying this conclusion is valid. I consider the pastorals a forgery, and Paul’s trip to Rome a complete fabrication by the author of Luke, who was certainly not a companion of Paul.
But those early Christians (in Irenaeus’s time?) took Acts and 2 Timothy as 100% truth.
One thing I find interesting is that the author of Luke is very adamant that his gospel is the most historically reliable and factually correct one so far. He claims to have done immense research and study in order to arrive at these positions. Additionally, he appeals to these reasons in particular in order to convince Theophilus of the reliability of his message.
However, in Acts, if it is indeed the same author, it appears as if he abandons this methodology in some way. He exaggerates numbers of converts, misrepresents Paul’s relationships with the apostles, and so forth. How do scholars tend to reconcile these different approaches to writing?
Scholars don’t generally see it as different approaches. There is a good bit in Luke that is not accurate either. Acts is about as historically accurate on, say, Paul as Luke is on Jesus.
Would it be appropriate to categorize Acts as hagiography? I know it deals with multiple apostles, but the adulatory, idealized treatment of Peter and Paul as saints seems like a genre that fits?
Hagiography doesn’t really become a think in Christian literature until much later. Certainly the author treats Paul with adulation, and there are similarities to the celebration of great saints in later writings; these, of course, knew the treament of Paul in Acts! The closest analogies from the time the author was writing are biographies of religious men (say, Apollonius of Tyana) and histories (say of the Jewish people).
I know it wasn’t your aim to provide a full synopsis of Mason’s argument for Luke’s dependence on Josephus, but there are other points in the argument that really make me wonder. Mason points out that no other source from the ancient world apart from Acts and Josephus discusses “the Egyptian” leading sicarii into the desert—and that Josephus’ use of the term “the Egyptian” makes sense in his context, but in Acts, this designation is very strange, and the whole conversation is awkwardly contrived. In Acts 21:33, the Tribune doesn’t know who Paul is, and then in 21:38, he acts as though he thought Paul was some known (but unnamed) Egyptian. Say what??? And why does he use the Latin “Sicarii” in a Greek text? This, and the other examples Mason gives all make sense if the author is borrowing from Josephus to add historical color to his stories.
Mason admits that the conclusion that Luke/Acts depends on Josephus could be mistaken, and certainly it’s not as strong as the case that Matthew depended on Mark, but is the case for a pre-90s dating of Luke really that compelling or is this a case of scholarly inertia?
Well, it’s hard to know. He does say the Theudas/Judas thing is his most important argument. For me, it somewhat matters that the Didache does appear to quote verbatim a saying of Jesus found only in Luke. That too is not hugely decisive.
Is it possible that Luke is quoting the Didache?
Highly unlikely. The Didache appears to be representing a church structure/organization/situation later than what we find in Acts, among other things.
Why do you say the Didache copied Luke, instead of Luke copying the Didache? The same argument for the Didache copying Matthew (Our Father…). There are solid reasons to believe the Didache was written by the Jerusalem church in the 50s, to tell the gentiles (some in the same communities that Paul also preached) to teach them the right procedures of Jesus cult. 1) The 2 Ways of life. 2) The Eucharist. The teaching of Paul to drink the wine as the blood of Christ was absolutely blasphemy for any Jew. Remember, even gentiles must “abstain from blood”.
Hello Prof. Ehrman.
In your writing it’s quite clear the role of apocalypticism. John the Baptist was an apocalypticist who Jesus sought out. Jesus was an apocalyptic preacher. Paul was an apocalyptic preacher. Apocalypticism resonated with the Jewish community at the time.
But why would apocalyptic thinking resonate with pagans? That’s seems more of an obstacle to conversion.
Also, Paul’s insistence on Gentiles not having to follow the Law. I can understand his emphatic argument with Jewish Christians but it seems his Epistles are written to a Gentle audience. Why would Jewish Scripture, Law, rites and rituals have any meaning to Gentiles? Other than circumcision and dietary restraints I can’t imagine pagans being well versed in Scripture and Law. I would think Paul’s arguments would be received like explaining Hebrew grammar rules to people who spoke Greek. I would think pagans would just roll their eyes and nod their heads.
My sense is that lots of people think the world is going to hell and will soon come to a crashing halt. I’d say most Democrats are saying that today (a lot of Republicans were saying it precisely four years ago). Apocalypticism acknolwedged the basic premise of this idea: the world really is rotten; and it stressed the good news about it: it’s not a catastrophe but a very good thing, because the forces of good are going to *cause* it, not be destroyed because of it. We do know of other apocalyptic scenarios in antiquity outside of Judaism (eg., Stoic views of the world being destroyed by fire).
Gentiles still sometimes are drawn to Judaism (the ole “Jews for Jesus” were mainly gentiles, apparently) The appeal would be that if Jesus is the jewish messiah sent from the God of israel, then following that God is what ultimately matters.disabledupes
Moreover, I’ve cmpletely certain that most pagans heard Paul did indeed roll their eyes.
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In Luke’s gospel, the ascension occurred within a couple of days after the resurrection. In Acts, Jesus was with his disciples “forty days” (i.e. a long time) before ascending. How is this reconciled if the author of both was the same? Did “Luke” receive updated info from “L”?
In luke it actually occurs on the very day of the resurrection! And yup, that’s hard to reconcile with Acts. Well, impossible. But I will say that there is a textual variant in Luke’s Gospel — one key Greek manuscript doesn
t have the ascentions in 24:51!