In my previous posts I have given a sketch of what the book of Revelation (AKA the Apocalypse of John) is all about, and discussed who actually wrote it (some fellow named John, but not John the son of Zebedee).
Now we can move into the question of when it was written and why. I have taken this account from my textbook The Bible: A Historical and Literary Introduction 2nd ed. (Oxford University Press).
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As with all the apocalypses of the ancient world, it is important to situate the Revelation of John in some kind of historical context to make sense of its bizarre symbolism. There are hints scattered throughout the book that portions of it were written in the time of the emperor Nero (in the early 60s C.E.), although the final product is usually

Dr. Ehrman,
I understand the high degree of symbolism in Revelation. One time a star is an angel. Another time the stars fall from the sky like figs in a strong wind.
My money is that the author didn’t understand stars are huge flaming thermonuclear reactors trillions of miles away, but rather little white dots on the firmament of heaven. Little white somethings that could fall… literally, not symbolically.
Could you give your scholarly opinion on the symbolism or literalism of “the stars will fall like figs”?
They drop (and die) as soon as the time is ripe. The time of the end has now come and the figs / stars drop. I assume they drop on earth. Maybe the planet will burn itself into non-existence!
Hello Dr.Bart Erhman
Did Paul speak latin?
Not that we know of.
I’m wondering, if apocalypses were apparently known in the ancient world before Revelation was written, would they have been associated with the word apocalypse? After all the word just means “revelation”, and the main characteristic of apocalypses seems to be the fact that they talk about the overthrowing of the current world order by divine intervention, rather than the fact that something is being or has been revealed. Is it always the case in apocalypses that the author claims to know the (nearby) future thanks to divine revelation?
The term came to be used because of the opening line of Revelation, but the “genre” was around before it had this name. (Just as Science Fiction Novels don’t call themselves “Science Fiction Novels”)
Dr. Ehrman, have you ever read any books from FG Smith, who wrote around the turn of the 20th century? I started reading his material around 30 years ago. I don’t agree with everything he wrote, but he made some valid points concerning some of the symbols found in Revelation. He maintained that the beast (animal) was political, as beasts are in Daniel. The whore (human) on its back was the religious system supported by the political system. Rome supported the worship of numerous gods. This would have been current history to the time Revelation was written, wouldn’t it?
I don’t recall reading any of his work, no. If you’d like an up to date commentary on Revelation, I’d suggest looking at the one by Craig Koester.
The question was asked if Paul spoke Latin and you answered not that we know of. When Paul was rescued by Roman soldiers and finally taken to Rome, we are told that he preached from a rented house under guard and taught while there. As a Roman citizen, I have read that a person would have to know Latin, at least being able to understand it and speak it even if in a rudimentary style. Isn’t that some proof he spoke some Latin?
That is found in the book of Acts, and I don’t think Acts gives a historically accurate view of Paul (including that episode) . In any event, Greek was spoken in Rome as well as Latin, among the educated. (To that end, recall that he preached in numerous places — from Jerusalem to Antioch, to Asia Minor etc.) that had their own local anguages as well…) disabledupes{c33d9c2e1a1676d1c48039d36c21cff9}disabledupes