For those of us who do not have a ready grasp of Greek, how does Dr. Windsor’s argument hold up? (I mean this mostly in regards to the translation rather than the implication. I do see that he is correct that older Bibles give the translation that he endorses.) I see that Robert has addressed some of this in posts above. Windsor appears to have done quite a lot of personal work in the area, and he teaches the subject professionally. Does he have a reputation of good standing in the field? (Obviously, there are always going to be disagreements among those who do close study in almost any field. In my own field of expertise, I know most of the main participants, and have some idea as to which ones are serious scholars and which ones are just crackpots looking for attention or desperately hoping for promotion and tenure, or a book deal.)