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Paul - Resurrection & the Empty Tomb
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Robert
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January 31, 2020 - 9:32 am
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tompicard

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January 31, 2020 - 10:09 am

Hngerhman said
Perhaps topical given recent Forum discussions on burial as well as our most recent guest blogger Dr Tabor.
Two questions:
1) Did Paul’s view on bodily resurrection commit him to the existence of some empty grave?
2) Related but separate, is it likely that Paul believed a version of the empty tomb story similar to what we find in Mark?  

 

we have answers/opinions of Dr Ehrman’s of these questions from 8 years ago see

** you do not have permission to see this link **

 

I am going to to read that now before commenting again

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tompicard

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January 31, 2020 - 10:20 am

here is an interesting tidbit to note from that post and comments of 8 years ago

the first reply to Bart’s blog post is from a guy named “Robertus” and that guy  strangely has the exact same iconRobert that our current friend “Robert” has. I wonder it Robert is the glorified version of Robertus and and if the body of the prior guy disintegrated or was transomed (via pneuma) into the new guy

very confusing . . . 

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Robert
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January 31, 2020 - 10:28 am
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Hngerhman

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January 31, 2020 - 12:52 pm

Robert said

Hngerhman said
… he might know it, he just doesn’t sufficiently believe it, that’s the upper limit of what I’m gesticulating at. … 

That’s an interesting twist.   

The positive position I’m attempting to stake out does not hinge on heard/know but rather sufficiently holds/believes. There are places on a Venn diagram where these might overlap, but I’m explicitly not trying to fortify the not(heard/know) hill. I’d prefer to die elsewhere.

Sorry if I was previously unclear, because I can see how it might feel even more of a fool’s errand than I’m actually intending to run (still foolishly). Let me know which direction you think it would be most interesting to run. 

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Robert
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January 31, 2020 - 1:26 pm
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tompicard

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January 31, 2020 - 1:53 pm

Hngerhman said

. . . hinge on heard/know [empty tomb] but rather [whether Paul] sufficiently holds/believes [empty tomb].  . .

in the 7.5 year old post above Bart concludes  that

Paul has not heard it, but believes it

 

personally

i doubt Paul has heard it, and 

I strongly doubt Paul believes it 

of course I could change my mind , and I do my best to track all arguments I have seen by Bart which he seems to think supports his conclusion, but so far I find his arguments lacking.  

 

from Barts post above

——–

Would he [Paul] have said the tomb was empty? Certainly yes. But that would have been out of logical necessity, not because he had heard stories about Mary Magdalene going there on the third day.

——–

and

——-

Ultimately, Paul believed this so deeply because he was, and always had been, a Jewish apocalypticist, who maintained that this world had become corrupt, but God was not going to abandon it (or the bodies he had created); he was going to redeem it (along with the bodies).

——

I personally can’t see  the logical necessity; nor do I hold enough expertise to conclude EVEN IF I ACCEPT that Paul was and always had been a Jewish apocalypticist that that would lead him to view Jesus’  tomb as empty

 

but really, I have no information, or opinion, regarding what Paul had always been 

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Robert
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January 31, 2020 - 3:56 pm
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Hngerhman

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January 31, 2020 - 4:27 pm
Hey Tom –
 
To motivate a view of logical necessity (which I don’t know that I hold to):
 
– Paul himself, apart from what his background is, talks a lot about bodily resurrection. Body is a key term for him
– In a normal sense, body would mean physical, and therefore would imply (assuming Paul believes in some burial, which the creed says he does) an empty grave for Jesus
– But Paul’s view of resurrection does not appear to entail a normal body, but a glorified one; so what does that mean for the grave contents?
– In many places, Paul appears to indicate that the glorified resurrected body is reconstituted by pneuma, not sarx. This is where Tabor seems to split off – the sarx is left behind, the soul gets reclothed in pneuma. It’s a pneumatic body, but it is discontinuous with the old sarx body. So, no empty grave
– But Paul also appears to talk a lot about transformation of the old body into the new body, and it suggests a continuity of identity between the old body (sarx) and the new one (pneuma). In this sense, the old sarx body is somehow reconstituted into (and in continuity with) the new pneumatic body, which implies that the old sarx body is no more. Hence, logical implication of empty grave
 
Hope this hasty reply is helpful.
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tompicard

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February 1, 2020 - 4:54 am

Would the argument from silence tend toward  Paul believing Jesus’ grave empty or filled ?

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Hngerhman

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February 1, 2020 - 10:44 am

I’d be curious others’ view on this, but my thought is that, silence taken alone, it’s equally indeterminate.

One could try to motivate a case in either direction, and those supporting arguments will turn partially on how far out one grants the textual horizon to be. I.e., if we limit it to only Paul’s undisputed epistles, or the whole of the Pauline corpus, or including Acts, or including the entire NT, or including the entire biblical canon, or…

Would love to hear others’ thoughts.

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tompicard

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February 1, 2020 - 11:15 am

ok here is one opinion

 

Paul said “Jesus was died and buried”

1) there is a mountain of evidence, we assume available to Paul, that people who have died and buried remain in their tombs

so since he did not say the tomb is empty, wouldn’t that be evidence that the tomb is filled

 

On the other hand

2) Paul said “Jesus is alive”, and again we assume that all alive people Paul is familiar do not reside in tombs, and as Paul did not say that this particular alive person happens to be in a tomb, wouldn’t that be evidence that the tomb is empty

 

[ and look this, question should be a much simpler question than whether, in Paul’s view, Jesus is composed sarx or pneuma or is flesh or physical, normal or abnormal(?) glorified or not, etc] 

so yes maybe indeterminate 

 

returning

there is absolutely ZERO evidence available to Paul, as far as we know, of the conjunction of  people

dead to buried to alive

so between propositions above, I would say the the argument from silence prefers  1) above  2)   

 

so as I cannot come to a conclusion on something as relatively simple as this, neither can I accept Bart’s contention that Paul of logical necessity would have believed the  tomb empty (which isn’t to say the opposite)

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Stephen
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February 1, 2020 - 11:46 am

tompicard said

Would the argument from silence tend toward  Paul believing Jesus’ grave empty or filled ?  

A terrific question.

Oh, you expected an answer?

Most scholars seem to think that Paul is repeating a pre-existing credo which he has modified to include his own apostleship.  We can never really know what Paul actually thought but given his view of the Resurrection body expressed in 1 Corinthians, it is entirely possible that he didn’t really care about the fate of Jesus’ earthly body.  I have suggested elsewhere, to the consternation of some, that the stories of the tomb began, not as a memory of a historical tomb, but as a response to the horror of the actual fate of Jesus’ body.  On Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays, I think Mark invented the story of the Empty Tomb.  On Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays I think he took a pre=existing tradition and modified to his own use.  On Sundays I rest.

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Hngerhman

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February 1, 2020 - 12:31 pm
I would agree, generally, with the view that Paul’s silence here is deafening. I’ve spilt much digital ink trying to begin to motivate my view of it. But, any view of it comes down to the strength of the supporting arguments, not the silence itself.
 
To play a little Devil’s advocate (I don’t claim to hold the points I’m about to make):
 
Someone motivated to defend Paul believing in an empty tomb (incl but not limited to traditional believers such as WLC) could deny that Paul has zero evidence of dead to buried to alive. He has Jesus. Before Jesus, there was zero. Now there is one. And further, Jesus is a paradigm killer – so any Bayesian argument from prior base probability rates is inapplicable. N=1 means Bayes (and base rates generally) break down. I don’t hold this, but I think it could be leveled, and it bears on the indeterminacy without supporting arguments.
 
 
And then, on logical necessity:
 
 
1) If a person is resurrected, that person’s bodily remains are no longer.
 
2) Jesus is resurrected.
 
Therefore:
 
3) Jesus’s bodily remains are no longer.
 
This argument is logically valid.  If one grants 1) and 2), then the argument is logically sound. Hence an assertion of logical necessity.
 
Bart’s argument from apocalypticism is intended to bolster Paul’s assent to material condition 1). Thus, if Paul’s an apocalypticist, then (the view is that) he holds 1).
 
I think (and similar to Robert’s point about Bart’s view evolving since) one can motivate an argument of Paul holding 1) without appealing to his apocalypticism. Just by reading his own words, in the vein of Corinthian Body.
 
It’s then a pneuma/sarx-like distinction argument that tries deny 1). You could have bodily resurrection without having any impact whatsoever remains. It’s then an argument about transformation that tries to tie identity of the pneumatic body back to the sarx body.
 
I know this all is obvious – my intent is just to try laying out clearly as many targets packed inside the argument to shoot at. Happy hunting!
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tompicard

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February 1, 2020 - 12:39 pm

second point, relevant or not, you decide

Bart wrote see above or via link above

 

tompicard wrote  

that Bart said
——
Ultimately, Paul believed this so deeply because he was, and always had been, a Jewish apocalypticist, who maintained that this world had become corrupt, but God was not going to abandon it (or the bodies he had created); he was going to redeem it (along with the bodies).

——
  

the issue under discussion in this thread is exactly the parenthetical phrases above,

so tho I am likely agreeing with what Bart wrote

Paul as a Jewish apocalypticist . .  maintained that this world had become corrupt, but God was not going to abandon it () ; he was going to redeem it ()

 

it is the data within the  parenthesis that I doubt, that is it appears Bart is speculating on these parenthetical phrases more than proving them.

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Hngerhman

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February 1, 2020 - 12:54 pm

Agree on the point about the parentheticals – they are what’s at issue, and why some people deny the material conditional 1).

I’m trying to find something a much smaller read than Corinthian Body that gives a synopsis of the textual arguments (to make them explicit rather than only allusions in my summaries) – because CB is long and dense, and I’m not sure I’d do it justice if I tried to do it myself.

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Hngerhman

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February 1, 2020 - 3:03 pm

OK, for the 1st question (Paul’s resurrection view and whether it commits him to an empty grave) I found this paper – it gets at the heart of the issue of question in by way of 1 Cor 15, and Corinthian Body (and argues against portions of it).

 
** you do not have permission to see this link **
 
I’m not endorsing the article’s conclusion, only its framing of the debate. It is a quicker synopsis of the textual data than CB, and well more learned than I could ever muster.
 
I do not yet agree with its conclusion, because (a) partially, I just cannot do the work in Greek and (b) mostly, even if I accept the Greek grammar/linguistics arguments as I understand them (in English), the article’s opinion seems to help itself to a conclusion which isn’t logically derivable solely from the premises as laid out. At least as I understand it. But I’ll read it again. And, as usual for me, not agreeing with its conclusion doesn’t imply I agree with not(its conclusion). I have leanings, but I’ve not taken a side yet.
 
Robert, you are the only one amongst us capable of doing the work in Greek (especially his grammatical subject/verb/object matrices). Curious if you have thoughts, but obviously only at your leisure.
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Hngerhman

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February 1, 2020 - 3:11 pm

Robert said
I think Bart pretty much considers all Pharisees (including early Paul) to have been apocalyptic on account of their belief in the resurrection of the dead. I’m a little less certain that all Pharisees were apocalyptic because of the presence of this belief in the Maccabean literature, which does not share some other important aspects of apocalypticism.  

This is fascinating. Is there a link between the Maccabean literature and pharisaism?

In addition to being a Pelagius moron, I’m also a Maccabean literature neophyte…

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tompicard

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February 1, 2020 - 3:47 pm

i likewise bought the “Corinthian Body” about a year or more ago but haven’t or barely opened it.

which is very unusual for me cause once I buy a book I usually try to read it and even if I can’t stand it I try to finish it

 

anyway the impression I have had since purchase, and the impression I get by glancing the the linked paper, is that it, Corinthian Body, is going to be both over my head and not really worth it (mental fatigue); at least as far as my interest goes.

 

Why haven’t it read it?

probably cause I think Jesus and Paul were preachers with something to teach they felt crucial for people to understand; Paul seems to be also making an attempt at being a some kind of grand greek philosopher. Am I really going get the point of what he is ultimately trying to say/teach by treating verses here and there of his letters to various communities as a consistent and coherent philosophical thesis? Isn’t that expecting too much ?

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Hngerhman

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February 1, 2020 - 5:07 pm

Yeah, CB is hyper-dense. To read it, you reallygotta want it…

 
Some quick thoughts on your well founded concerns.
 
Is Paul holding himself out as some grand Greek philosopher? Perhaps he is. That’s a very valid criticism. Though his rhetorical skills in relation to the general population he was dealing with suggests he might have been perceived as pretty learned by some in his audience. It seems to me he thinks (a) he’s got something important to say and (b) that he feels himself capable of thinking critically about it. Beyond that, I think “Luke” in Acts wants to suggest Paul to be a grand philosophe. I am not sure how far to take the characterization, but I definitely lean in on thinking he was trying to impress (though argumentation as well as signs and wonders) his converts.
 
Is it too much to hold him to a consistent philosophical view, reconstructing this view from 7 letters that aren’t a sustained argument for it but are rather purpose-fit? Perhaps. In the letters we have, he’s clearly not attempting (or if attempting, not achieving) to be a fully systematic theologian in the manner some of his descendants.  But he doesn’t seem to me to be just a shoot from the hip kind of guy. He’s a former Pharisee (rich history of disputation), well educated in a Greek manner, and he generally has a knack for expressing and expounding upon his views (as evidenced in the texts we have and the impact his strain of early Christianity that out-survived and out-compounded the Jerusalem strain). If we strain out the possibility of clarifying his views on bodily resurrection, how much else of a reconstruction program gets strained out of the Pauline scholarship? I’m not usually a baby-with-the-bathwater guy (in fact I generally hate it), but as always, it matters where we draw the line on what’s reconstructible and what’s not. In this case, we do have a reasonable amount of ink he’s dedicated to the topic. And it’s a topic broadly that, as far as we can tell, was part of well-worn Pharisaic thought. Is this enough? I don’t know, which is why I’m wading about in this swamp as well as picking the brains of smart forum friends like you.
 
And back to your meta point – I tend toward the view that Paul was at least a generally consistent thinker (relying as he often does on reductio ad absurdum arguments). I tend to think if it’s a topic he’s thought about, he doesn’t hold to a glaring inconsistency. If we could sit him down with us, it would be my contention that we could likely walk through his views, and they wouldn’t be wildly inconsistent. But, he also professes (in Romans) there are certain things that are mysteries to him. So, while it’s my bias that he’s not irretrievably inconsistent in his views (nor even terribly inconsistent), I’m also not saying he’s as consistent as say Spinoza, either. I think EP Sanders (and his scholarly genealogy broadly) generally has Paul right. But of course I would think that, because Bart and others have sent me off in that direction…
 
Ok, that’s more editorial from me than you probably wanted.
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