It’s my understanding that the word Philistine comes from the ancient Hebrew word ‘plishtim’, which means invaders.

The Jews probably called the Romans plishtim as well. The Romans then took up this word, perhaps to say, “Yeah, ha-ha-ha, we’re the invaders, – What you gonna do about it!” and named the land Palestine. This name for the land of Israel has stuck, down through the centuries.

It’s my understanding that the original Philistines were Cretan seafaring people who invaded the coasts of the Eastern Mediterranean. They were taken off to Babylon at the time of the Exile along with the Jews. Unlike the Jews, they never returned.

Could David have been a Philistine? I don’t think so. To me, it seems highly unlikely.

I learned that the translation of ‘plishtim’ from a Hebrew speaking Jewish person who I believe was living in Israel.

I’ve seen what “scholars” have done in our “ivy league” schools. I’m as likely to take what common folk understand as honest history as I am to listen to them.

U2

How likely is it that ancient Jews had nearly the exact same word for something as that which was used for a group of people who invaded the coasts of Israel and the Mediterranean?

Robert said

Helen Young said
U2
How likely is it that ancient Jews had nearly the exact same word for something as that which was used for a group of people who invaded the coasts of Israel and the Mediterranean?

Precisely my point. They didn’t. If you think I’m wrong, prove it. 
  

You just stated that the word is used in the Hebrew Bible. The word very reasonably existed in the spoken language before the HB was written.

You introduced it as the same or very similar word in your comment #22.

It’s my understanding that the word Philistine comes from the ancient Hebrew word ‘plishtim’, which means invaders.

Nope, not in ancient, Biblical, second Temple, Rabbinic, Talmudic, Medieval, or Renaissance Hebrew. In Biblical Hebrew the root is only used four times, always in the hitpael and it means “to roll or wallow in dust/ashes” as an act of mourning (Jer 6,26 25,34 Ezek 27,30 Mic 1,10). 

So the Israelis and the Egyptians used a similar word for these people. That doesn’t mean they weren’t invaders.

I don’t think I need to explain why the Jews called the Romans invaders as well.

This should be completely self-evident. 

Just because we don’t have it in writing in any of the existing material from the time, doesn’t mean Jews, even most Jews didn’t or wouldn’t have called the Romans invaders.

Maybe the higher-ups, the ones who were working with the Romans, who were also the ones who could write, didn’t use the word too often. But the mass of the common people probably would have.

The Romans were invaders. The Jews would have called them what they were, that is invaders.