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The Messiah CANNOT be the Son of David.
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Robert
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December 6, 2021 - 7:43 am
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brenmcg

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December 6, 2021 - 5:33 pm

mzejum said

When the Jews said Abraham is their father , did they Mean Abraham Slept with their Mothers? I really do not understand why people like applying double standards to suit their intentions. If you disagree with the use of Sister of Aaron, that showed she is a descendant of Aaron. secondly she was Given the same name as the sister of Aaron. Lastly, Why do People deny what they cannot prove, can you Prove Mary had no Brother called Aaron for instance? i bet you cant. so we can assume that your argument is just based on assumptions. 

  

Father and son, or Mother and daughter are well used expressions for ancestors and descendants, but no “sister of”.

Its certainly possible Mary had a brother called Aaron. But what’s more likely? that Mary the mother of Jesus happened to have a brother named Aaron and a father named Imran just like her namesake Mary the sister of Moses, and that no one knew about this until the quran was written? or that somewhere along the line a mixup was made between the two Miriams?

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mzejum

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December 7, 2021 - 7:52 am

brenmcg said

mzejum said

When the Jews said Abraham is their father , did they Mean Abraham Slept with their Mothers? I really do not understand why people like applying double standards to suit their intentions. If you disagree with the use of Sister of Aaron, that showed she is a descendant of Aaron. secondly she was Given the same name as the sister of Aaron. Lastly, Why do People deny what they cannot prove, can you Prove Mary had no Brother called Aaron for instance? i bet you cant. so we can assume that your argument is just based on assumptions. 

  

Father and son, or Mother and daughter are well used expressions for ancestors and descendants, but no “sister of”.

Its certainly possible Mary had a brother called Aaron. But what’s more likely? that Mary the mother of Jesus happened to have a brother named Aaron and a father named Imran just like her namesake Mary the sister of Moses, and that no one knew about this until the quran was written? or that somewhere along the line a mixup was made between the two Miriams?

  

So if its Possible that Mary had a brother called Aaron, why the big fuss out of nothing, any way where i come from any woman coming from my mothers line age we call them Mother, any man from my fathers Village we call them Father, any ladies from my mothers village we call them sisters , the same applies to ladies my age from my fathers lineage or Village. 

Anyway kindly tell me what the word sister and Relative means in proverbs 7:4, also the word sister in 1 John 2:11

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IR_2017

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December 7, 2021 - 7:59 am

Father and son, or Mother and daughter are well used expressions for ancestors and descendants, but no “sister of”.

 

what about “brother of” ?

 

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brenmcg

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December 7, 2021 - 9:33 am

mzejum said
 

Anyway kindly tell me what the word sister and Relative means in proverbs 7:4, also the word sister in 1 John 2:11

  

Sister of wisdom is used to signify a closeness to wisdom – that wisdom is an ally. 

In 1 John 2:11, brother is used to mean brother in christ – baptised into the same family.

Neither is used to mean descendant

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brenmcg

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December 7, 2021 - 9:37 am

IR_2017 said
 

what about “brother of” ?

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“Brother of Mary” is not used to mean “ancestor of” or “descendant of”

There’s no direction of descent – its used to mean contemporary or like-minded.

Mother-Daughter, Father-Son when used figuratively still has a direction of descent.

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mzejum

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January 4, 2022 - 3:51 am

brenmcg said

mzejum said

 

Anyway kindly tell me what the word sister and Relative means in proverbs 7:4, also the word sister in 1 John 2:11

  

Sister of wisdom is used to signify a closeness to wisdom – that wisdom is an ally. 

In 1 John 2:11, brother is used to mean brother in christ – baptised into the same family.

Neither is used to mean descendant

  

That is according to you culture, if you have one, Where i come from, if i am name after my grandfather, my grandmother addresses me as  “My Husband”, my father addresses me as “father” and if my sister is named after my grandmother, My Grandfather addresses her as “my wife” and my father addresses her as “mother”. if My father names my sister after his aunt he will address her as “aunt”. people from where i came from of my age we address each other as “brother” and ‘sisters’ , but those older than me we address them as our “father” , “uncles” and we do not have any blood relationship. That is our culture as Africans. if you want to know more ask an African American women why they call other African American Women “sisters” or ask the African American man why they address other African American men as “brothers”. 

According to western traditions such cultures never existed, but in the Middle east the culture is still there, When Maryam is addressed as Sister of Aaron, it is because she was named after Miriam the sister of Aaron, because Her father was named Imran after the father of Moses, Aaron and Miriam.

The most exiting thing about that verse in the Quran is that, people do not read and understand it. as it is. who called Mary the sister of Aaron? 

Quran 19:27-28 Says,

“Then she came to her people, carrying her baby. They said: “O Mary! You have committed a monstrous thing. O sister of Aaron!1 Your father was not an evil man, nor was your mother an unchaste woman.”

from that we can see that , the words “Sister of Aaron”, was said by Mary’s  people, the Israelites. this Shows it was the culture of the Israelites to address people like that we cannot comment against it by comparing that your culture. Sister of Aaron is idiomatic for ‘woman of the clan of Aaron’. and the bible proves it that Mary is a descendant of Aaron.

if sister of Wisdom signifies Closeness to Wisdom , why can’t sister of Aaron signify Closeness to Aaron?  

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brenmcg

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January 4, 2022 - 1:22 pm

mzejum said
 

if sister of Wisdom signifies Closeness to Wisdom , why can’t sister of Aaron signify Closeness to Aaron?  

  

It could do, and if “sister of Aaron” was all that was said then something like Mary being part of an Aaronic priestly sisterhood would be the best understanding of the verse.

But the quran elsewhere says her father was called Imran and speaks of Moses and Jesus in the context of the “family of Imran” and “family of Abraham”.

So a confusion of the two Marys/Miriams then becomes the better explanation.

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Omar6741

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January 7, 2022 - 5:35 pm

brenmcg said

mzejum said

 

if sister of Wisdom signifies Closeness to Wisdom , why can’t sister of Aaron signify Closeness to Aaron?  

  

It could do, and if “sister of Aaron” was all that was said then something like Mary being part of an Aaronic priestly sisterhood would be the best understanding of the verse.

But the quran elsewhere says her father was called Imran and speaks of Moses and Jesus in the context of the “family of Imran” and “family of Abraham”.

So a confusion of the two Marys/Miriams then becomes the better explanation.

  

On the other hand, the Quran nowhere calls the sister of Moses by the name ‘Maryam’, and follows a consistent pattern in not giving the names of any woman at all, except for the mother of Jesus. If there were really a confusion between the two Maryams, one would expect the traits of the mother of Jesus to spill over onto the sister of Moses — e.g. by calling her ‘Maryam’ in the story of Moses — but this we never see in the Quran. 

The Quranic author seems clear on the distinction between the two women. 

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brenmcg

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January 8, 2022 - 5:54 pm

Omar6741 said

On the other hand, the Quran nowhere calls the sister of Moses by the name ‘Maryam’, and follows a consistent pattern in not giving the names of any woman at all, except for the mother of Jesus. If there were really a confusion between the two Maryams, one would expect the traits of the mother of Jesus to spill over onto the sister of Moses — e.g. by calling her ‘Maryam’ in the story of Moses — but this we never see in the Quran. 

The Quranic author seems clear on the distinction between the two women. 

  

The quran was supposedly compiled over a twenty year period. There’s no reason to believe a confusion of two Marys/Maryams should be consistently applied across its entire production. 

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mzejum

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January 14, 2022 - 7:29 am

On my Opinion and on my Understanding by reading.

The Quran Corrects what the Bible Speaks in regard to the Lineage of Jesus. By Calling Mary daughter of Imran and the Jews being quoted calling Mary sister of Aaron totally Disagrees with the Jewish Scriptures Claiming the Messiah is the Son of David AND that Proves to the world that the Jewish Scriptures are corrupted and Changed . Something that Jesus himself is Quoted saying in Mathew 22:42 when he asked the Pharisees whose son is the Messiah?. In Mark 12:35 it is quoted that Jesus asked the Teachers of the law “Why do the teachers of the law say that the Messiah is the son of David?. In Luke the same is quoted in Luke 20:41. This Indicates that there was word going around in regards to the Messiah according to the Jews and this is proven in John 8:42 where some of the Jews commented “Does not Scripture say that the Messiah will come from David’s descendants and from Bethlehem, the town where David lived?” .

This is a clear indication the Jews had changed their scriptures to suite their own Traditions that nothing Good is going to come from the other children of Israel but Only from the Lineage of David. And this behavior, Jesus in the Bible also pointed at it in Mark 7:13 when he tells the Pharisees “Thus you nullify the word of God by the tradition you have handed down. And you do so in many such matters.

so! was Jesus really of the Lineage of Aaron as pointed out in the Quran by Mary being called daughter of Imran? and Jews being Quoted calling Mary sister of Aaron.?

1. Luke  1:35 and Luke 1:5 Clears , although some people tend to deny it by assuming that Mary’s father could have been from the Lineage of David , which we have seen clearly Jesus denies that.

2. Jesus says in John 5:46 that Moses wrote about him. if you look in the Bible where Moses wrote about Jesus . You will never find it but from reading Deuteronomy 18:18 we see what Jesus meant when he said that Moses wrote about him. But The Jews had changed their scripture to favor themselves. and as i read the NIV it says “i will raise a prophet like you among their fellow Israelites” while the KJV mentions the word “BRETHREN”. 

There is a habit of people reading a verse and making their conclusion. and am sure there will be 1 or 2 who will come out gun Blazing and refuting my comment as usual. But before that happens can we ask ourselves who are the people being addressed in Deuteronomy 18:18?

Without speculation and assumptions we see that the people Being addressed here are the LEVITES PRIEST and this can only be deduced from Deuteronomy 18:1 and all through Deuteronomy 18 it is the Levites that are being addressed and no other tribe of Israel. This again Proves the Jews Changed the scripture to indicate that the Prophet unto Moses might come from other tribes of Israel. 

3. Point Number 2 has cleared everything for me. But Just to highlight more on this issue. Jesus is addressed as a Priest. But again according to the Children of Israel , it was decreed and it was written in Exodus 28:1 any priest for the Children of Israel Must be a descendant of Aaron. Jesus being a Priest is a descendant of Aaron. But many will argue that he was a Priest Like Melchizedek . ask them why they will struggle to answer. Melchizedek  was both PRIEST and KING. the same way the messiah was supposed to be both Priest and King. if the Jews would have accepted Jesus as their Messiah. God would have gave them victory over their Oppressors. The messiah was not coming to save people from sins as believed by some people the Messiah Like Moses was coming to save the Israelites from their oppressors Just as Moses saved them from Pharaoh.

The Messiah CANNOT be the Son of David.

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brenmcg

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January 16, 2022 - 2:58 pm

mzejum said
 

2. Jesus says in John 5:46 that Moses wrote about him. if you look in the Bible where Moses wrote about Jesus . You will never find it but from reading Deuteronomy 18:18 we see what Jesus meant when he said that Moses wrote about him. 

In John 5:46 Jesus does not mean Moses prophesying the Christ. He means Moses speaking about the I AM. 

Jesus is the one Moses was speaking of.

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JAS

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January 16, 2022 - 4:22 pm

The idea that any of these genealogies, as given, can be trusted to prove or disprove anything strikes me as very odd. (The one thing that may be certain is that they cannot both represent authentic histories for Jesus since they are contradictory. That would be something of a miracle.)

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mzejum

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January 17, 2022 - 5:20 am

brenmcg said

mzejum said

 

2. Jesus says in John 5:46 that Moses wrote about him. if you look in the Bible where Moses wrote about Jesus . You will never find it but from reading Deuteronomy 18:18 we see what Jesus meant when he said that Moses wrote about him. 

In John 5:46 Jesus does not mean Moses prophesying the Christ. He means Moses speaking about the I AM. 

Jesus is the one Moses was speaking of.

  

Really?  John 5:46 says according to the NIV If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me.

I AM very sure 100% i do not have a deficiency in Reading English , even though its not my mother tongue or my first Language . There is Nothing in John 5:46 or Deuteronomy 18:18 about I AM, that I AM very sure 100%. I AM very Sure you must be reading something else from somewhere else and Not John 5:46 or Deuteronomy 18:18.

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brenmcg

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January 17, 2022 - 1:01 pm

Yes there’s nothing about I AM in John 5:46 or Deut 18:18

Moses never wrote about the coming Messiah. He wrote about speaking to Yahweh (who introduced himself as I AM) at the burning bush and elsewhere.

When Jesus says in John 5:46 that Moses wrote about him, this is what he was referring to. Jesus is claiming to be the I AM Moses spoke to and wrote about.

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mzejum

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February 13, 2022 - 4:45 am

brenmcg said
Yes there’s nothing about I AM in John 5:46 or Deut 18:18

Moses never wrote about the coming Messiah. He wrote about speaking to Yahweh (who introduced himself as I AM) at the burning bush and elsewhere.

When Jesus says in John 5:46 that Moses wrote about him, this is what he was referring to. Jesus is claiming to be the I AM Moses spoke to and wrote about.

  

From Matthew 9:3-4 it is clear that Jesus said ,whoever that thinks he is God is harboring evil in their hearts. That means he cannot be the iam you are claiming he is. 

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brenmcg

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February 13, 2022 - 12:20 pm

mzejum said

  

From Matthew 9:3-4 it is clear that Jesus said ,whoever that thinks he is God is harboring evil in their hearts. That means he cannot be the iam you are claiming he is. 

  

The accusation that Jesus blasphemes is the evil thought.

His defense is that the son of man has authority on earth to forgive sins. The crowd marvel that such authority has been given to man. The question of whether Jesus is claiming to be God is side-stepped in this passage in Matthew.

Luke/Mark are more explicit however, adding “Who does he think he is, he blasphemes, only God can forgive sins?” and inviting the reader to answer that question for themselves. A version of “Who do you say I am?“, given to the reader.

And Luke/Mark both remove Matthew’s “When the crowd saw this, they were filled with awe; and they praised God, who had given such authority to men“.

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mzejum

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February 14, 2022 - 12:47 am

brenmcg said

mzejum said

  

From Matthew 9:3-4 it is clear that Jesus said ,whoever that thinks he is God is harboring evil in their hearts. That means he cannot be the iam you are claiming he is. 

  

The accusation that Jesus blasphemes is the evil thought.

His defense is that the son of man has authority on earth to forgive sins. The crowd marvel that such authority has been given to man. The question of whether Jesus is claiming to be God is side-stepped in this passage in Matthew.

Luke/Mark are more explicit however, adding “Who does he think he is, he blasphemes, only God can forgive sins?” and inviting the reader to answer that question for themselves. A version of “Who do you say I am?“, given to the reader.

And Luke/Mark both remove Matthew’s “When the crowd saw this, they were filled with awe; and they praised God, who had given such authority to men“.

  

You said it yourself…The eyewitness crowd Praised God for Giving Jesus the authority to Forgive sins. if the Eyewitnesses present identified God and Jesus as man and  as separate entities where do you get the notion Jesus is God from? 

Secondly from Matthew 6:12 I and you also forgive sins. 

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brenmcg

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February 14, 2022 - 5:30 am

mzejum said

You said it yourself…The eyewitness crowd Praised God for Giving Jesus the authority to Forgive sins. if the Eyewitnesses present identified God and Jesus as man and  as separate entities where do you get the notion Jesus is God from? 

  

From Matthew.

Matthew 11:27 “All things have been handed over to me by my Father; and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.

Matthew 28:18-19 “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit

These words are spoken by someone claiming to be in divine union with the Father.

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JAS

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February 14, 2022 - 7:28 am

This is all touching on a theological point about the inherent nature of the Trinity. That isn’t going to be solved by quoting scripture, or probably at all.

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