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Historicity of John
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Robert
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May 29, 2020 - 7:49 am
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Hngerhman

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May 29, 2020 - 11:21 am

Yeah, in my fuzzy mind it’s a continuum of indistinguishable options, (a) misremembered stories from an actual man (one end of spectrum), (b) author/redactor who invents and inserts it (other end of spectrum), (c) followers of an actual man conflating stories and memories (intermediate position); and so on. And possibly some mix of these.

Agree completely on the intertextual dynamics. But you know me, ever willing to push a string…

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Steefen
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May 29, 2020 - 4:08 pm

Poohbear said

Steefen said
Poohbear
Egypt did rule Israel in BC 1000.
Steefen
Then, how do you explain the Bible narrative not mentioning that?  

On one hand people argue there was no Moses. On the other they argue he couldn’t have been in Palestine ca 1200-1000 BC.

We don’t have dates. And going by genealogies is fraught because, as seen in the NT, writers took out whole generations for symbolic reasons. As is shown by the arrival of the Philistines (the dreaded ‘sea people’ who nearly destroyed Egypt) there wasn’t much Egyptian control over Palestine.  

Poohbear
On the one hand, there was no Moses, people say.

Steefen
Those people are in error.

Poohbear
He could not have been in Palestine circa 1200-1000.

Steefen
Why would the biblical Moses be in Palestine when the biblical David was in Palestine, 1000 BCE?

As for 1200 BCE, no, the biblical Moses did not have a showdown with Ramesses the Great.

Poohbear
We do not have dates.

Steefen
Actually, we do. People need to study Egyptology before making such statements.
Combine Egyptology with Eusebius. Praeparatio Evangelica Book IX. Chapter XXVII.

I have a book coming out soon which answers this: really, there is no need for me to re-write the second edition of my book in these forums. The book that is coming out, first gets submitted for review, then I will see what happens after that.

Poohbear
Writers took out whole generations for symbolic reasons.

Steefen
Writers also did not have generations to connect different parts of history, for example from Moses to Saul to David.

Poohbear
Given the Sea Peoples, Egypt did not have much control over Palestine.

Steefen
Sea People would have been more coastal than hill country. If the Philistines did go to war with Saul, which they probably did not, and if they went to war with David, where is the evidence that they pushed out David or even the Omrides?

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Hngerhman

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May 30, 2020 - 10:18 am

On the topic of Dr Mendez and gospel of John, is there a current state of the art on the theoretical sayings and the signs sources embedded in the authorial/redactional layers, given the appearance of what has in the past looked like literary seams?

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Robert
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May 30, 2020 - 11:10 am
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Hngerhman

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May 30, 2020 - 2:59 pm

Robert, thank you. This is excellent.

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Poohbear

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May 30, 2020 - 11:54 pm

Steefen said

On one hand people argue there was no Moses. On the other they argue he couldn’t have been in Palestine ca 1200-1000 BC.
We don’t have dates. And going by genealogies is fraught because, as seen in the NT, writers took out whole generations for symbolic reasons. As is shown by the arrival of the Philistines (the dreaded ‘sea people’ who nearly destroyed Egypt) there wasn’t much Egyptian control over Palestine.  

Poohbear
On the one hand, there was no Moses, people say.
Steefen
Those people are in error.
Poohbear
He could not have been in Palestine circa 1200-1000.
Steefen
Why would the biblical Moses be in Palestine when the biblical David was in Palestine, 1000 BCE?
As for 1200 BCE, no, the biblical Moses did not have a showdown with Ramesses the Great.
Poohbear
We do not have dates.
Steefen
Actually, we do. People need to study Egyptology before making such statements.
Combine Egyptology with Eusebius. Praeparatio Evangelica Book IX. Chapter XXVII.
I have a book coming out soon which answers this: really, there is no need for me to re-write the second edition of my book in these forums. The book that is coming out, first gets submitted for review, then I will see what happens after that.

Poohbear
Writers took out whole generations for symbolic reasons.
Steefen
Writers also did not have generations to connect different parts of history, for example from Moses to Saul to David.
Poohbear
Given the Sea Peoples, Egypt did not have much control over Palestine.
Steefen
Sea People would have been more coastal than hill country. If the Philistines did go to war with Saul, which they probably did not, and if they went to war with David, where is the evidence that they pushed out David or even the Omrides?  

Don’t think it matters if the Philistine were coastal or hill people – Egyptians would have pushed them out as they did in Egypt itself. There IS evidence for the Philistine destruction of Shiloh, mentioned in Samuel. It’s typical of the bible that it’s not a history book, nor a myth – Samuel says the Philistines took the ark, no mention of Shiloh. And in Shiloh there’s evidence for the Levitical sacrifices and the “horn of the altar.”

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Steefen
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May 31, 2020 - 6:02 pm

Poohbear
There IS evidence for the Philistine destruction of Shiloh, mentioned in Samuel.

Steefen
Please provide.

Poohbear
the Philistine destruction of Shiloh, mentioned in Samuel.

Samuel says the Philistines took the ark, no mention of Shiloh. 

Steefen
Shilo mentioned in Samuel.
No mention of Shiloh in Samuel.

Please clarify your communication.

 

In the meantime,

1 Samuel 3rd Chapter 21st verse

The LORD continued to appear at Shiloh, and there he revealed himself to Samuel through his word.

1 Samuel 4th Chapter verses 1-3

And Samuel’s word came to all Israel. Now the Israelites went out to fight against the Philistines. The Israelites camped at Ebenezer, and the Philistines at Aphek.

The Philistines deployed their forces to meet Israel, and as the battle spread, Israel was defeated by the Philistines, who killed about four thousand of them on the battlefield.

When the soldiers returned to camp, the elders of Israel asked, “Why did the LORD bring defeat on us today before the Philistines? Let us bring the ark of the LORD’s covenant from Shiloh, so that he may go with us and save us from the hand of our enemies.”

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Poohbear

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June 1, 2020 - 6:16 am

Steefen said
Poohbear
There IS evidence for the Philistine destruction of Shiloh, mentioned in Samuel.
Steefen
Please provide.
Poohbear
the Philistine destruction of Shiloh, mentioned in Samuel.
Samuel says the Philistines took the ark, no mention of Shiloh. 
Steefen
Shilo mentioned in Samuel.
No mention of Shiloh in Samuel.
Please clarify your communication.

 

In the meantime,
1 Samuel 3rd Chapter 21st verse

The LORD continued to appear at Shiloh, and there he revealed himself to Samuel through his word.
1 Samuel 4th Chapter verses 1-3

And Samuel’s word came to all Israel. Now the Israelites went out to fight against the Philistines. The Israelites camped at Ebenezer, and the Philistines at Aphek.
The Philistines deployed their forces to meet Israel, and as the battle spread, Israel was defeated by the Philistines, who killed about four thousand of them on the battlefield.
When the soldiers returned to camp, the elders of Israel asked, “Why did the LORD bring defeat on us today before the Philistines? Let us bring the ark of the LORD’s covenant from Shiloh, so that he may go with us and save us from the hand of our enemies.”  

There has been on-going excavations at Shiloh over many years, if I recall. Amidst the ruins were the ‘horns of the altar.’ Of interest were the numerous bones from sacrificed animals – some of which showed the cut marks on the right side of the beast only. This attests to the Leviticus law concerning sacrifice – something Philistines an Canaanites did not observe. Shiloh was destroyed during that Philistine attack mentioned in Samuel.

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DODea

25 Posts
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June 3, 2020 - 9:44 am

Poohbear,

A fascinating read and as usual I’m late to the party!  Thanks for posting this thread.

So many things occur to me that I’m beginning to lose track.  Your notes are packed with curiosities.  I apologize as I know parts of this response are reflected elsewhere in other responses.

Ehrman, like many “critical scholars” studied ancient Greek. But this isn’t to deconstruct Greek mythology, it’s to challenge the bible.

How on earth would you know why Dr. Ehrman studied Greek?  If we are to trust what he says himself (and why wouldn’t we?) he was a believer when he was studying Greek and the NT – not to mention a Pastor doing all the things Pastors usually do.  And how can anyone study the NT critically without first learning Greek?  Why is learning Greek in order to examine NT texts critically a problem for you?  I simply don’t understand.

I’m very sure there are people studying Greek mythology critically too, but no one is up in arms about their findings because nobody (I know of) believes that what survives of Homer is inerrant and should be the basis of our lives and how we organize our societies.

When the famous model Bettie Page was challenged over her scanty attire she pointed out the Adam and Eve were naked too, and God walking in their garden was probably naked too. Why was she saying this? Because the ultimate authority on moral issues was the bible. In the West the bible remains an authority …

So, Bettie Page justifying nudity by referencing Adam and Eve and Garden of Eden is proof that the bible is the ultimate authority on moral issues in the West?

So, according to postmodernism and deconstructionism there are no truths – except the views of the “critical scholars” telling this. And life has no meaning – an accidental universe created itself before it existed, like magic.

Being sceptical of traditions and attempting to understand origins and meanings of scripture (however failingly) does not invoke a magical universe (quite the opposite) – nor does it mean there are no truths or that life has no meaning.

So sure, bit by bit, many of the things “critical scholars” said didn’t exist have come to light. An interesting one is the “invisible archaeology” in Edom which points to the possibility there were far more people living in Israel in the Bronze and Iron Age than previously thought. I grew up being told things like there is no such thing as a racial Jew and that King David never existed – it would be nice if “critical scholars” did a self assessment of their former claims.

Many scholars held views which were later proven to be wrong when new information arose.  Good and honest scholars update prior beliefs to align better with new information.  There are many more errors YET to be made in scholarship and many more opinions YET will change.  I find that very comforting!  I’m very wary of any kind of belief or opinion which refuses to change when new contradictory information arises.

I am fine with John being the author of John’s Gospel and writing what he actually saw. 

That’s great, and I don’t think anyone here would mind that you hold that view.

For instance “virgin” is “almah” in Greek which means “young girl.” So “scholars” want to pour cold water on your Christmas sentiments because THEY want the authority once accorded to scripture. But “almah” has other connotations, and Isaiah said this particular almah having a child would be “sign” to Israel.

If “almah” is a Greek word then why do you cite the word when referencing Isaiah which was written in Hebrew?

I think your view that scholars are hoping to gain some kind of authority that the scriptures once had is incorrect.  I’m sure there are exceptions, but it seems to me that scholars are just looking for answers like the rest of us.  They just have more time (and hopefully more ability) than many of us do.

We grew up being told “There’s no evidence of any King David.”

This was meant to say “There is no King David.”

In 1993 we had the first evidence for the “house of David” (Tel Dan inscription)

To this day I haven’t read any scholarly article pointing how the absence of evidence was employed to prove evidence of absence – and how we got it wrong. I am not talking about archaeologists, who are more circumspect, but the modern day scribes who “interpret” findings.

“There is no evidence of King David” and “there is (was) no King David” are two completely different statements.  You are the one inferring the second statement from the first one.  There was no evidence, outside of the bible of a King David, until they found the Tel Dan stele.  Now – I think – scholarship mostly agrees that there is evidence of a King David or a House of David.

I remember learning of a similar thing about 30 years ago when I was studying a little about Mesopotamia.  I hope I am remembering this correctly: In the 19th century many scholars questioned the historical existence of Nineveh as it was only mentioned in the bible and not mentioned anywhere else.  Then archeologist found the ancient city.  Now scholars all agree the city of Nineveh existed.

Why is that a problem?

One final question.  Is it truly your view that archaeologists are circumspect – and critical scholars working in textual criticism and other biblical studies (modern day scribes who “interpret” findings) are not circumspect?  If so, isn’t it possible that you hold this view because archeologist confirmed a historical fact that you wished to be true – and that the some scholars hold different views to yours regarding the origins and meanings of some scripture?

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Poohbear

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June 4, 2020 - 6:59 pm

I remember learning of a similar thing about 30 years ago when I was studying a little about Mesopotamia.  I hope I am remembering this correctly: In the 19th century many scholars questioned the historical existence of Nineveh as it was only mentioned in the bible and not mentioned anywhere else.  Then archeologist found the ancient city.  Now scholars all agree the city of Nineveh existed.

Why is that a problem?

One final question.  Is it truly your view that archaeologists are circumspect – and critical scholars working in textual criticism and other biblical studies (modern day scribes who “interpret” findings) are not circumspect?  If so, isn’t it possible that you hold this view because archeologist confirmed a historical fact that you wished to be true – and that the some scholars hold different views to yours regarding the origins and meanings of some scripture?  

The problem isn’t scholarship but its abuse. I had no end of people telling me “There’s no evidence for David” and “There’s no evidence for Moses” as if to say these figures did not exist. But like the latest work in Edom which suggests Israel was as large as the bible states, we can get it wrong. But in correcting this, Judaeo Christianity doesn’t seem to “win back” people who lost faith over the false assertions.

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Robert
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June 4, 2020 - 7:33 pm
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DODea

25 Posts
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June 4, 2020 - 8:22 pm

Poohbear said

The problem isn’t scholarship but its abuse. I had no end of people telling me “There’s no evidence for David” and “There’s no evidence for Moses” as if to say these figures did not exist. But like the latest work in Edom which suggests Israel was as large as the bible states, we can get it wrong. But in correcting this, Judaeo Christianity doesn’t seem to “win back” people who lost faith over the false assertions.  

Hi Poohbear,

I’m sorry you felt you were being abused or attacked by people who stated there was no evidence of a King David.  I’m not surprised.  People get attacked for their beliefs and it’s not very nice I agree.

I have to point out, though, I went through your posts and asked you some questions and you failed to explain the answers to me in all cases.  Let’s leave that aside though – unless you wouldn’t mind answering them – the answers are important to me and I want to understand your point of view.

Setting all that aside ….

Let’s suppose that all of the people, places and wars mentioned in the bible turn out to be real people, places and wars historically.  What then?  Why is that important to you?  What argument would you make with that information?  The answer to this question is important to me so if you wouldn’t mind answering just the one question (again, unless you’re unwilling to answer the others too).

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Poohbear

152 Posts
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June 5, 2020 - 5:26 am

Steefen said
Poohbear
There IS evidence for the Philistine destruction of Shiloh, mentioned in Samuel.
Steefen
Please provide.
Poohbear
the Philistine destruction of Shiloh, mentioned in Samuel.
Samuel says the Philistines took the ark, no mention of Shiloh. 
Steefen
Shilo mentioned in Samuel.
No mention of Shiloh in Samuel.
Please clarify your communication.

 

In the meantime,
1 Samuel 3rd Chapter 21st verse

The LORD continued to appear at Shiloh, and there he revealed himself to Samuel through his word.
1 Samuel 4th Chapter verses 1-3

And Samuel’s word came to all Israel. Now the Israelites went out to fight against the Philistines. The Israelites camped at Ebenezer, and the Philistines at Aphek.
The Philistines deployed their forces to meet Israel, and as the battle spread, Israel was defeated by the Philistines, who killed about four thousand of them on the battlefield.
When the soldiers returned to camp, the elders of Israel asked, “Why did the LORD bring defeat on us today before the Philistines? Let us bring the ark of the LORD’s covenant from Shiloh, so that he may go with us and save us from the hand of our enemies.”  

 

Not sure what you seek to say by quoting this – these events occurred before the ark was taken. There’s a later reference to Shiloh as a city of ruins, centuries later. I suppose the destruction occurred when Eli died – and I suppose Samuel et al were evacuated from the city. That’s how the bible is – it glosses over huge historic events because history isn’t its primary aim.

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