
As I early on confessed, I’m clearly not well versed on Markan style. I am aware, on the authority of others, that his Greek is urgent, awkward and variously elliptical and punchy, and that all this gets smoothed out in English translation. That’s the extent of my understanding.
Robert, I for one would be very interested in learning more about which component(s) of typical Markan style makes 13:10’s feeling of non sequitur make more sense. As I mentioned to brenmcg above, it feels less oddly placed than Matthew’s “and the Gentiles”, but still odd to me, a 21st century American monoglot. A simple explanation, or perhaps a good piece to read, would be greatly appreciated.
And brenmcg, would you kindly please unpack more your view as to why the concept (and plurals) of governors and kings implies Gentiles? As I read it, it might admit of Gentiles, but their logical entailment by the terms isn’t clear to me at this point. And if it did, then why would Matthew have Jesus say “and Gentiles” at the end of the sentence? That interpretation feels a little like saying “I want Cherry Garcia, and ice cream!”

Robert, thank you. Excellent.
If I were to say that (what looks to me as) the odd placement of Mark 13:10 in the flow is just one of many examples of where Mark places parentheticals into his narrative at what might appear at odd places, it wouldn’t be too far off? As myself someone who overly liberally uses parentheticals, I can feel his pain.
Is this feature quintessentially Markan, or is it a feature common of ancient Greek or Aramaic style more broadly?
In terms of this particular parenthetical being deemed an “insertion”: if he does these often, it would seem the onus would be on the analyst trying to break this one off from the others as special.

Robert said
It may appear odd at first if you only compare one or two isolated verses in Mark and Matthew, but if you look at the larger Markan context, the paragraph divisions, the whole chapter, it makes good sense in Mark’s larger, contemporizing discourse with his readers in Chapter 13 and as part of the whole narrative plot of his gospel.Parentheses are certainly not peculiar to Mark, but he is a little bit inattentive sometimes about where he places explanatory comments, and there are other aspects of this parenthetical comment that also show it to be Markan.
Understood and agree. For me, it’s not the passage’s meaning per se in the context (that does/did make sense), but its placement textually – literally, between which other sentences – that seemed odd. But given that there’s a pattern that Mark is sometimes inattentive in just this way elsewhere, the oddness in my eye is a feature not a bug.
Robert said
In the larger context of Mk 13, it is much more than a parenthesis but I’m struggling to find the right word to indicate its importance to the whole chapter. What do you call a parenthetical comment that is actually more important than its most immediate context? A structural parenthesis that ties the immediate context to the larger context? A structural or interpretative highlight? It’s sort of like a guidepost pointing to the larger meaning of this saying in Ch 13 and indeed for the whole gospel. Maybe you have a better way to describe such a parenthesis?
Perhaps kinda like a major aside or narrator cut-in in a stage play.
Robert said
There are some reasons to think that something like the Matthean version of the saying was part of Mark’s tradition and perhaps might have had an independent existence in Q. I’m not convinced of this. It would indeed explain the doublets in Luke, and both Matthew and Luke putting this statement in differing contexts, but the lexical evidence is rather slight, so I’m not sure it was part of Q. At any rate, if we presume that something like Matthew’s version of this statement was part of Mark’s tradition, he would have inserted the comment into that older saying when he was constructing Chapter 13.
Could one not also interpret the preceding and succeeding pieces as possibly distinct (but of a piece) sayings, such that the perceived unitary nature of the composite saying (presuming this 13:10 parenthetical was inserted) is of Mark’s stitching? I struggle to see how one could one distinguish that here, empirically?
Robert said
In my opinion, the onus should be on anyone who claims to really understand Mark but also says the important parenthetical interpretive highlight does not make sense in Mark’s context. Bren begins with the unshakable belief that Matthew was first and that Mark was a bit of an idiot who made changes that did not really make sense sometimes not even to himself. That’s a silly premise. One should try to make sense of each author on his own terms.
Alas, the brain is a funny thing that way. Rarely do we as a species say, “Let me continuously weigh all the pluses and minuses for my belief that X” in light of new evidence. Rather, we tend to implicitly operate under, “Is it still logically permissible for me to continue in my (cherished) belief that X? New evidence be damned…” It’s a hard thing to hold at bay. If I don’t keep reminding myself, I too succumb to it (and sometimes even with the reminder I still do)…

Hngerhman said
And brenmcg, would you kindly please unpack more your view as to why the concept (and plurals) of governors and kings implies Gentiles? As I read it, it might admit of Gentiles, but their logical entailment by the terms isn’t clear to me at this point. And if it did, then why would Matthew have Jesus say “and Gentiles” at the end of the sentence? That interpretation feels a little like saying “I want Cherry Garcia, and ice cream!”
Well if it had just said “the king” maybe mark or matthew may have meant king herod, and governor always refers to roman rulers in the NT.
Being put in front of the kings and governors is just the beginning of the preaching to the gentiles. Its not the preaching itself, which is why it doesnt belong in a section about the end-times. Try cherry garcia and that will be your introduction to ice-cream generally.
Also parenthetical comments are common to all the gospels not just Mark. And misplaced parenthetical comments are not a Markan feature.
“But when you see the desolating sacrilege set up where it ought not to be (let the reader understand), then those in Judea must flee to the mountains; …” is not misplaced.

Robert said
brenmcg said
Right – I’m not trying to prove Matthew is first I’m trying to show Mark shows signs of editing his source, and what’s being edited in this instance looks just like Matthew’s version.
Thus if you cannot show that Mark’s source is Matthew, this passage has no real bearing on your silly defense of the outmoded and rightly abandoned theory of Matthean priority. QED.
The premise of the synoptic problem (if we discount Luke) is that either Mark copied Matthew or Matthew copied Mark.
If I show signs of Mark editing his source and his source looking like Matthew, then accepting the premise of the synoptic problem, I’m necessarily showing Mark’s source to be Matthew. If none of them are in a direct relationship then its completely impossible to decide on priority.
brenmcg said
I’m not sure what you’re asking? You asked “Explain to me how Matthew may have held to Jewish exclusivism for a while and then later rejected it.”
Are you asking how a historical Matthew may have at first held to Jewish exclusivism but then rejected it?
Yes, based on the text of Matthew, not based on imaginary and fruitless speculation unable to demonstrate anything of importance to the matter under discussion.
The parable of the wedding banquet. The king puts on a banquet for his son and tells his servants to call those who have been invited (exclusivity). But they refuse to come and their places then offered to others.
Essentially it is a parenthetical comment that fits the immediate verses into the larger Markan context.
But the immediate verses are about the beginning of evangelizing to the gentiles but just to their rulers.
This makes sense in Matthew where they’ve been told to only go to the lost sheep of Israel – but it is they who will flog them and hand them over to gentile rulers.
There’s no sense of that in Mark.
Had the gentiles previously heard the message before the disciples were handed over to governors in Mark? If the gentiles had previously heard the message then this is not the appropriate place for this parenthetical remark. If this is only the beginning of the preaching to the gentiles then this isn’t appropriate in a discussion of the end-times.

Robert said
Please recall, the issue was not whether or not every aspect of Markan style was totally unique, but whether or not awareness of Markan style can help one make sense of Mark 13:10. You said it could not; I showed that it certainly does.
Nor did I ever say that every Markan parenthesis or explanatory comment is misplaced! Please, pat attention.
You have said parenthetical remarks are common in Mark as in the rest of the gospels. That Mark sometimes delays explanatory clause with examples. And you have made a statement that Mark is “little bit inattentive sometimes about where he places explanatory comments” but without examples.
But you haven’t shown how something in Mark’s style can lead to a secondary thought be inserted into the middle of a single unitary original concept.

One more thing to add, in Matthew’s version the disciples are told not to worry about how or what they will speak.
That is, they will be brought before gentiles and shouldn’t worry about how they can speak to them, for it will be the holy spirit talking through them.
This is a probable allusion to speaking in tongues through the spirit.
Luke, like Mark, leaves out the “how” part and Luke changes it to Jesus will tell them what to say.
And another, Matthew and Luke have “governors and kings” in the accusative, Mark has it in the genitive. Further indication of Luke following Matthew not Mark. (Not forgetting “before all this” in Luke).
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