In trying to figure out what it even means to talk about the “original” text of Philippians (was it what Paul meant to dictate? Was it what he did dictate, if it was different from what he intended? Was it what the scribe wrote even if it was different from what Paul dictated? Was it what Paul corrected after he saw what the scribe incorrectly wrote? Was it the fresh copy that the scribe made even if it was different from the corrected version Paul gave him? What happens if in fact Philippians is two letters that have been spliced together by a later editor, as many scholars believe, rather than just one letter – is the “original” the two different letters originally sent or the spliced together version that Paul did not create but someone else did? Etc. etc.), in trying to figure all this out, several readers have suggested that the easiest way to look at it is that the “original” of Philippians is the letter Paul sent to Philippi, whatever happened, prior to its being sent.
Fair enough. But we are still left with the problem that all the manuscripts we have of Philippians are based on the spliced-together edition created after the two letters were received (spliced together a year or two later by someone in the church of Philippi? By someone living ten years later? It’s impossible to say: our earliest copy is from about 150 years after Paul sent the letters!), so that if this critical view (that the letter was originally two letters) is correct, then we don’t have access to the original letter(s) that Paul sent at all! (I should say that most textual critics do not even *consider* this host of problems that I’ve been laying out. Possibly that’s because, well, they throw complications into the midst that no one wants to deal with because there’s simply no way to solve them!)
But let’s suppose just for the sake of argument that our letter to the Philippians is just one letter, not two spliced together later, and let’s suppose, again just for the sake of the argument, that what we are going to call the “original” text is the version of the letter that Paul sent to the Philippians after all the dictating, writing, editing, and re-writing was finished. Doesn’t that solve our problems?
Well, no, not really. Would that it did!
Let’s say (for the argument)…
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that Paul sent the one letter to Philippians. Someone in Philippi obviously copied the letter. If no one copied it, we wouldn’t have any manuscripts from later times. So how did it actually happen? Unfortunately, there’s no way of knowing. Let me give a scenario that is really no more likely and no less likely than any other. You can come up with dozens yourself, some that create more problems and some that create fewer.
Let’s say the “original” letter was copied three times in Philippi over the course of the next month – maybe there were four different house-churches in Philippi (the church was too large to fit into one household, say), and each one wanted a copy. Let’s call the original O and the three copies A, B, and C. They each get read a lot. Maybe O gets read so much that it wears out, and so the church that has that copy, after some years, makes another copy, that we’ll call D. Now A, B, C, and D may have some differences among them – maybe small differences, maybe large ones, as some of the people making the copies were not all that literate or skilled in copying or careful. Let’s just say that A and B were copied pretty well, with only a few minor mistakes here and there, but that C and D were not copied very well.
And let’s say that a Christian from another city – say Thessalonica — comes to Philippi and visits church C, and sees that they have Paul’s letter (a copy of it) and wants a copy of it for their home church. So they make a copy. And suppose it’s not a perfect copy of C, which was not a very good copy of O. And so the copy that gets taken back to Thessalonica is not a brilliant copy of a copy of O. Six months later a Christian from Rome visits the church in Thessalonica, learns of the letter, makes a copy of it to take back to Rome. It’s an OK copy (of an imperfect copy of C which was a poor copy of O). In Rome, the copy of a copy of a copy of O gets copied twelve times for the various house churches in Rome.
Meanwhile, the churches in Philippi have used and reused their copies, until they need more copies because the first copies are wearing out. But – this is just one hypothetical scenario out of hundreds – it is the copies that are found in Rome that get copied by other churches around the Mediterranean, since, more Christians come to Rome than to Philippi or Thessalonica, which hardly ever have any visitors from the outside, as opposed to Rome.
Eventually the original, O, and the first copies, A, B, C, and D are worn out, replaced, recopied, and recopied again, but not put into circulation. The copies that get circulated are copies of the copies of the copies of the copies of C, which was not a very good copy in the first place.
And all this takes place over the course of, say, 10 years. After thirty years, there are lots of copies, but the vast majority of them ultimately go back to C. After 90 years there are lots more copies. All of the copies are made by scribes who might make small mistakes. After 150 years there are more. And one of *those* copies happens to survive in fragmentary form – we call it, today, P46.
All of this is further complicated, in rather mind-boggling form, by the fact that a lot of critical scholars think that O is not one thing, but two things, spliced together by someone in Philippi.
Well, you get the idea. Can we say for *certain* that P46, our oldest fragmentary manuscript, and B, our oldest complete manuscript, of Philippians contain word-for-word exactly what Paul wrote? Obviously not. How could we possibly know?
In my next post I will complete this thread by arguing that all of these complications do *not* mean (as one might think) that we have to throw up our hands in despair and say that there is no longer any point in studying the texts of Philippians as they have come down to us.[/mepr-show]
It’s really impossible to say that any of the New Testament is “authentic” then, isn’t it?
It completely depends on what you mean by authentic. *Usually* that word is applied to the question of whether the person writing a book actually was it’s author — which is not how you seem to be using it.
Can I correctly assume that this process of faulty transmission magnified by not having the originals significantly hinders the efforts to uncover Paul’s original intentions in this letter or letters?
It could do, depending on how skeptical one is about getting back to an approximation of Paul’s own words. I have to say, most scholars are not all that skeptical about it.
Thanks Dr. Ehrman for your swift reply. But we don’t have any manuscripts from the first century that’s why I’m a bit more skeptical- also my biased view as a Muslim :). Seriously though, do you think that because most scholars are Christian they tend to be not so skeptical.
Well, some Christian scholars are skeptical as well — but not most!
Fascinating material, Dr. E.
Keep it coming!
Is there reason to believe those long-ago people were so impressed with Paul and his thoughts that all the churches wanted copies of his letters, and actually used them somehow? Or might the leader of a church to which he’d sent a letter have read it, shrugged, stuffed it in a drawer, and never thought of it again? I think you’ve acknowledged that we sometimes overestimate Paul’s status and importance in his own time.
I suppose the ones stuffed in drawers were the ones we don’t have any more!
Aren’t manuscript cultures fun?
In my own field of early Islamic history, there’s currently a lot of interest in combinations of oral and written transmission, articulated most extensively by Gregor Schoeler. Trustworthy oral authorities were preferred, but then later generations came to prefer as evidence of their “writing” written documents which they had kept as notes, or which had been their students’ notes. In addition to people hearing things differently, the content of “books” might not be fixed until authorities’ death as they changed their minds or learned new information. You probably know a lot of this already.
Regarding Islamic manuscripts, I believe the text of the Quran was fixed circa 650; thus, more preserved than the New Testament. Also you’ve got manuscripts from the first century of hijra plus the Sanna manuscript, which is held by many scholars to be from the time of the Prophet. Refer to Sadeghi and Nicolai Sinai especially the latter’s newest paper on Academia.
I wasn’t mainly talking about the Quran, but manuscripts on other matters, such as the life of Muhammad. Also, there are minor variations in the Quranic manuscripts, as well as revisions after 650 to clarify matters of voweling.
By the way, thanks for the Sinai reference. You might be interested in the recent book Qurans of the Umayyads, by Francois Deroche, which covers the first century of manuscripts. Incidentally, I am *not* the “Ulrich” who wrote the Amazon review, which is itself worth reading.
You are welcome. Francis Deroche’s newest book is interesting, but I asked a famous Quranic scholar about it, and he said that the arguments presented are weak for its proposed thesis. Yes, I completely agree that there are very minor variations-dialectical or spelling- which, unlike the New Testament, never amount to intentional tampering( Mark’s long ending). What I mean is the argument from the Muslims that the Quran is completely preserved can be supported due to unbroken oral transmission in addition to written manuscripts from the first century of Hijra. Of course that doesn’t negate the possibility of error in manuscripts- not the Quran- due to human copying. About the life of Muhammad, I’ll refer you to Andreas Goerke’s paper in Der Islam titled “First Century Sources for the Life of Muammad? A Debate” and Nicolet Boekhoff-van der Voort’s paper “The Kitāb al-maghāzī of `Abd al-Razzāq b. Hammām al-San`ānī: Searching for earlier source-material”. I think the view of the neo-traditionalists about the general outline of Sira and the Quran is recently proven to be much more plausible than revisionist scenarios NOT including Miracles, which can be left as a personal matter of faith.
Seems like at some point copies must have become sufficiently plentiful that scribes would have begun to make thoughtful choices about which varient they should copy in their own texts. While I wouldn’t be surprised to learn that theological considerations were often important in these decisions, I’m wondering if there is any record of anything that looks like modern textual criticism happening during the copying of early manuscripts.
Some of the literary elite among the early Christians (Origen, Jerome) do talk about textual variants and discuss how to resolve them.
My immediate thought is that there must have been some conservatism to this process of copying as well. The fact that we have some few scraps from the second century proves that they did preserve old copies (and ultimately the autographs), and did not destroy them ritually as part of the maintenance of the texts. As the church(es) became increasingly organized, and as part of developing the canon, they must have noted differences and problems with various copies of the same gospel/letter, and drawn the obvious conclusion: look for and take care of the oldest copies to be acquired, and keep them for posterity as long as possible. However, one wouldn’t expect this tendency during the first period of copying, perhaps due to enduring eschatology expectations. But maybe the early communities would safeguard The Very Letter That Paul Himself Wrote, for quite some time?
Yes, there is definitely conservatism — since the point of copying a letter is to reproduce it. There’s not any evidence of communities being interested in keeping the “originals” though….
Egads! I was one of those who voted for the “original” being whatever copy was first received in Philippi even if it contained scribal mistakes, but I see the enormous problems even associated with that “solution.” Indeed, quoting anything from scripture seems to be an enormous problem although I well realize that that is often the only information we have..
Bart,
These posts on Philippians make me wonder what you as an author consider an “original” of one of your books or articles, talks, etc.? For myself I tend to think of what is “published” as the original, with the understanding that the original has a history of development behind it, could contain errors, and does not perfectly convey the author’s intent or understanding. The fact that in communicating we choose to include some things and exclude others for various reasons and the we often simplify what is complicated means the original invariably fails to reflect our full intent or understanding.
That’s a great question! I’m not sure *what* I consider to be the original. I suppose I think it’s the text that I send off to my publisher before it gets produced and published.
Different subject if I may; I’m reading “How Jesus Became God” and enjoying it very much. It got me to thinking, has anyone you could recommend written about the history/ doctrinal formation of the Holy Spirit? Was “3” a more perfect number than “2” if you’re struggling with the monotheism problem?
In baseball terms, God seems to be a great pitcher, Jesus an ace shortstop, but the Holy Spirit is in right field sort of bored and scratching himself. Hardly an equal, unless you’re inclined to speak in tongues.
Good question — there are lots of scholarly discussions about the Trinity, but I don’t know of anything for a general audience by a solid, critical scholar explaining why the Holy Spirit comes into play. I do talk a bit about it in the book, though.
Bart, I found you are at the top of the list of agnostic debaters! http://bittersweetend.wordpress.com/2013/06/22/top-atheist-and-skeptic-scholars/ … I’m glad one of the commenters mentioned 19th century Robert G. Ingersoll. His 44 lectures are superb.
Go figure.
DR EHRMAN:
YOUR COMMENT:
Well, you get the idea. Can we say for *certain* that P46, our oldest fragmentary manuscript, and B, our oldest complete manuscript, of Philippians contain word-for-word exactly what Paul wrote? Obviously not. How could we possibly know?
MY COMMENT:
We can’t be certain either way! The truth is we have the letters we have. I think what is more important is do we believe Philippians 2:6-11?
What matters is faith working through love. The righteous shall live by faith. God is able to do far greater things than what we can think of or write about.
Philippians 2:6-11
5-Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus,
6-who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,
7-but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men.
8-Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
9-For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, 10-so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11-and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.