Here are some interesting readers’ questions I’ve received that I think would be of some interest to other blog members, along with my answers which may or may not be of interest!

 

QUESTION

I often find that historians of early Christianity use the terms “historical Jesus/Paul/whoever” and “real Jesus/Paul/whoever” somewhat interchangeably, which I don’t love. I think there’s a difference between the historical Abraham Lincoln, who is an artificial human construct arrived at by following the rules of historical scholarship, and the real Abraham Lincoln, who is someone we have no access to. Perhaps I’m being too post-modernist though.

Perhaps somewhat analogous are Proto-Indo-European, an artificial human reconstructed language obtained by following the rules of historical linguistics to the best of our ability, and whatever was truly spoken by any particular speaker in the Pontic-Caspian steppe in, say, 6000 BCE. Or, as a looser analogy, Biblical religion as it existed in its ideal form in the mind of the priestly redactors of the Tanakh, and Israelite-Judean religion that any particular person in say 600 BCE would be engaging in, if we could build a time-machine and go observe them.

I’m curious if you think there is genuine value in emphasizing the difference between historical persons and real persons, or if this is post-modernism taken too far, and that given we have no time machine, the distinction is a not a useful one.

 

RESPONSE:

Yes, I basically agree. “Historical” anything is a scholarly reconstruction of what probably happened in the past (e.g., what a person actually [probably] said and did).  Even if it’s really close to reality, (a) we’d have no way of independently knowing that and (b) a reconstruction is not the real thing itself.

An analogy: you may be able to reconstruct a Tyrannosaurus, but it ain’t a real Tyrannosaurus. Even so, if you want to know what a real Tyrannosaurus looked like, you’re better off looking at a scientific reconstruction than a cartoon. And if you want to know what the real Jesus or Paul was like, you’re more likely to get close with a critical, historical reconstruction than a Sunday School curriculum for high school students.

QUESTION:

What was the reason/s why the nazis persecuted the Jews (among others)? I struggle to believe it was done purely for religious faction reasons
Were they a scapegoat or a threat for somebody?
Any read suggested about the nazis scholars/theologians? I never knew there were any, i thought the nazi ideology rejected Christianity and religions

 

RESPONSE:

It actually was not for principally religious reasons. It’s a very long story, but the Nazis were concerned to develop and promote a superior race of humans who would make the world a better (“better”!) and more noble place (in their opinion).  Based on race theories that had developed in the 19th century, and other social ideologies, they came to view non-Aryans as problematic, along with other outliers. These were to be eliminated.

They included therefore those of the wrong bloodlines (Jews) and others who were seen as “aberrant” (homosexuals, gypsies, etc.).

A Jew’s religion had no bearing on the question of their bloodline. Jews who were ardent Roman Catholics from Roman Catholic families were sent to the camps along with the orthodox.  A good book on the related topic of Christian theologians supporting the project is Susannah Heschel, The Aryan Jesus: Christian Theologians and the Bible In Nazi Germany.

 

QUESTION

Hello Bart. I had a question about Paul and the relationship with the Gospel of John in the New Testament.  Do you think there may be a closer relationship than some scholars recognize? Perhaps some direct line since John is clearly a sophisticated Greek author and Paul primarily preached in Greece?

I feel like there is more similarity between John and Paul than first appears. Both John and Paul have an extreme atonement theology (unlike Luke and is downplayed in Matthew who raises up the idea of keeping the Jewish Law).

Both also seem to preach an annihilationist view of the afterlife with Paul never mentioning hell (Contra the Synoptics with Gehenna and especially Luke).

Finally both have a very high Christology with specifically recognizes Jesus as a preexistent agent of creation (Contra Mark, and most likely Luke and Matthew) they recognize Jesus as divine with Mark saying he had the power of the Holy Spirit at the baptism but don’t seem to imply he was an agent of creation.

Just wondering if you think I’m onto something and you’re thoughts on this. Thank you for all your time and thoughtfulness.In the mid 20th century and earlier, it was widely assumed that John had been influenced by Paul. The problem is that when you look more closely at what they actually say, they are so very different.

 

RESPONSE:

In the mid 20th century and earlier, it was widely assumed that John had been influenced by Paul. The problem is that when you look more closely at what they actually say, they are so very different.

Just on the matter of “believing in Jesus” for salvation. That idea is not found in the Synoptics, but is prominent in Paul and John. But *what* you are supposed to believe is quite different.  Paul stresses that salvation comes by believing in the death and resurrection; John stresses that eternal life comes to those who believe Jesus is the one who has come down from heaven to reveal the truth.

So too, Paul thinks eternal life won’t start until Jesus returns and the resurrection occurs; John thinks it’s in the present. Thus Paul believes in an apocalyptic end of history; John rejects the apocalyptic view in favor of a heavenly existence being now.

There are indeed lots of similarities between the two, and readers need to make a judgment call: do these similarities make sense without a theory that one has borrowed from the other (especially since there are so many fundamental differences). My sense is that there were so many similar ideas, beliefs, understanding that were floating around in so many different Christian circles, that similarities of thought in and of themselves between two surviving authors is not sufficient to show that one whose writings we just happen to have must have gotten his information from one other that we happen to have.  Literary “dependence” needs to be based on otherwise hard to explain agreements (especially verbatim repetitions of more than a word or three – which you don’t get between Paul and John)

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2025-02-10T12:58:02-05:00February 18th, 2025|Public Forum, Reader’s Questions|

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14 Comments

  1. TomTerrific February 18, 2025 at 7:47 am

    Excellent!!

  2. Tommy February 18, 2025 at 9:29 am

    If Matthew and Luke used Mark: Why do they disagree both with Mark how often the cock crowed?

    • BDEhrman February 18, 2025 at 6:44 pm

      Yes, they both delete the word “twice.” It’s the only real agreement that have against Mark in the entire passage, and may be comparable to Jesus listing the “commandments” when telling the rich man what he must do to have eternal life and both of them omit the one about “do not defraud.” In both cases the omission makes sense, since defrauding is not one of hte “ten” commandments (unlike the others) and “twice” isn’t important to the story (why twice instead of just once?).

  3. jkwoolbright February 18, 2025 at 11:46 am

    I might as well add my own question to the mix. When did coequality become an official view of Trinitarian dogma? I assume it was with Augustine in “On the Trinity.” For instance, Augustine says in chapter 7, “In these and like testimonies of the divine Scriptures, by free use of which, as I have said, our predecessors exploded such sophistries or errors of the heretics, the unity and equality of the Trinity are intimated to our faith.”

    I imagine many of the ante-Nicene fathers were subordinationist.

    I asked this question while attending seminary and never really got a definitive answer. Maybe I asked the wrong people.

    Thanks!

    • BDEhrman February 18, 2025 at 6:45 pm

      It was the issue debated at the Council of Nicea. Arius argued for subordinationism; his bishop Alexander argued for equality. And Alexander won by a landslide.

  4. MicahLayne February 18, 2025 at 5:21 pm

    Joined the blog today. I discovered your work at the beginning of the year and have listened to almost the entire podcast history and I’ve read two of your books with three more in queue.

    I was raised United Pentecostal in Louisiana. I’m still a Christian though more thoughtful about it. I cannot stress enough how excited I am to be learning NEW things about the Bible. Finally!

  5. kirbinator5000 February 19, 2025 at 5:04 am

    When Paul says “to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord” (2 Corinthians 5:8) what is he imagining?

    • BDEhrman February 24, 2025 at 9:35 pm

      I deal with this in my book Heaven and Hell. He appears t obe thinking that he will have a temporary existence in heaven after he dies but before Jesus comes back for the resurrection.

      • kirbinator5000 February 26, 2025 at 2:13 pm

        But in your above response you noted a contrast between Paul’s and John’s views on eternal life. Paul believed eternal life begins at Jesus’ return and resurrection, whereas John saw it as already present. This led to the interpretation that Paul held an apocalyptic view of history’s end, while John rejected it for a heavenly existence now.

        However, in “Heaven and Hell” (p. 188), you highlight Paul’s later belief that death wouldn’t be detrimental for believers. He trusted God wouldn’t abandon saints to a netherworld or nonexistence. Instead, Paul believed the blessings received in Christ during life would continue after death, with the departed being with Christ.

        This suggests Paul’s views on an immediate state of blessing for the departed align with John’s present heavenly perspective. Doesn’t this indicate a compatibility between Paul’s and John’s beliefs, rather than a stark contrast?

        • BDEhrman March 2, 2025 at 1:26 pm

          John did not think you had to die first. It is now. For Paul it is later.

          • kirbinator5000 March 2, 2025 at 3:05 pm

            Paul’s concept of the kingdom exists in a dynamic tension between present/future. He portrays the kingdom as a future reality to be inherited (Galatians 5:21, 1 Corinthians 6:9). But also imagines a present reality. In 1 Corinthians 4, Paul addresses problematic individuals, emphasizing that God’s kingdom is not about words, but power. In Romans 14, he reframes conflicts over dietary restrictions, asserting that the kingdom is characterized by righteousness/peace/joy. This demonstrates how Paul’s understanding of the kingdom informs his approach to real-time issues.

            This tension mirrors Paul’s “already/not yet” theology of adoption. In Romans 8, he affirms believers are already God’s children (v. 14), yet await future adoption (v. 23).

            John may not explicitly emphasize future judgment, but offers hints. In John 8, Jesus’ statements suggest a future reckoning, where he will depart (8:21), judge unbelievers (8:26), and those who reject him will perish (8:24).

            Both John/Paul shared a vision of Christ’s vivification in believers now (Galatians 2:20, John 11:25). When John discusses eternal life, he employs the term ζωή (zōē), conveying a deeper/spiritual significance that transcends biological existence (βίος). John’s perspective doesn’t contradict the reality of physical death; rather, his emphasis lies in the eternal/spiritual life(zōē) that believers experience.

      • kirbinator5000 February 26, 2025 at 2:57 pm

        I challenge the notion that Paul originated the concept of an intermediate state between death and resurrection. This idea resonates with the narrative of Genesis 3, where Adam and Eve’s disobedience leads to death, followed by their awareness of nakedness. God responds by providing a permanent covering of skin, rather than a temporary leafy garment. The pattern being death, nakedness, permanent covering.

        Paul echoes this pattern when describing his own post-mortem state as “naked,” anticipating a permanent resurrected body that will clothe him. Rather than innovating the concept of an intermediate state, Paul’s distinctiveness lies in his confidence that this state won’t be dire, thanks to his union with Christ.

        The absence of the intermediate state concept in 1 Thessalonians doesn’t imply Paul hadn’t yet developed it. Rather, his audience likely didn’t view the immaterial, naked state as distressing, making it unnecessary for Paul to address or reassure them about it.

  6. bsteig February 21, 2025 at 7:28 pm

    Great questions and answers by Bart!

    I am about as far from “fundamentalism” as a person can be, but I see no reason to believe the Gospel of John is anything other than the author’s erroneous beliefs and pure fiction. Ditto for belief in resurrection as a return to life in the same human body. I am an active member of an UCC Church and strongly agree with the denomination’s claim that God Is Still Speaking to us all.

    Thanks to Dr. Moody, MD and his 2001book, “Life After Life,” we have strong reasons to believe that the minds/souls of everyone a) goes to heaven immediately when they start to die and b) watch a detailed review of their life. The book then describes they report being told by a Bright Light that the trip was premature, their hearts had resumed beating, and they must return to life on earth, having experienced a NDE (Near-Death Experience). Nothing is known concerning what would have occurred otherwise, except the recent books by Dr. Jim Tucked MD at the UVA Medical School, whose books provide summaries of the 65 years of research into reincarnation conducted at the Division of Perceptual Studies conducted there.

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