How much historical information about Jesus does the Gospel of Mark present? How do you date an ancient manuscript? Why does Mark have a “messianic secret”?
These are among the very good questions I’ve received recently, and here is how I’ve tried to answer them succinctly.
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QUESTION:
How much of the historical Jesus does Mark capture, either purposefully or accidentally?
RESPONSE:
Well, it’s impossible to put a percentage on it. For one thing, if it’s correct that Jesus’ lived for, say, 30-33 years (who knows?), it’s worth noting that Mark’s Gospel takes roughly two hours to read/recite. Necessarily he would have captured only a tiny fraction of the historical Jesus’ life, even if he is 100% accurate.
He’s clearly not 100% accurate, so the question for most historical scholars is not how much of his life does he capture but how accurate is the information that he does give.
That’s impossible to quantify definitively, in no small measure be because different scholars would give different responses (though none of them in a percentage!).
What most agree on is that of the four surviving primary sources, Mark is the oldest, the basis for two of the others, and on balance somewhat more likely to be providing relatively accurate material than the others. None of them can be used on their own, though; as with all historical sources for anything or anyone, they have to be used in combination and in light of each other.
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QUESTION
What is the process of assigning an ancient text to a certain a year? For example, where do you get 375 CE for the earliest text of Matthew? Do the authors write the year? Thanks!
RESPONSE:
I think you’re not asking when the text of Matthew was written (which was 80-85 CE or so) but when the oldest particular manuscript that has a complete copy of Matthew was produced. The two oldest are called Codex Sinaiticus (because it was discovered at St. Catherine’s monastery on Mount Sinai) and Codex Vaticanus (because for centuries it had been kept in the Vatican library. Why do we (I) typically say they date from around 375 CE?
There’s a discipline called “palaeography” (literally “ancient writing”) that dates manuscripts, principally on the basis of handwriting analysis. Since everything in antiquity was written by hand (no photocopiers!); and since the styles of writing in ancient languages changed over the course of decades/generations; and since some (not many!) manuscripts in, say, Greek and Latin have dates attached to them, we can know what handwriting generally looked like in this generation and that. Expert Greek palaeographers can date a manuscript within about 50 years. These two were both probably written somewhere between 350 and 400 CE or so, and so we can say 375 CE, plus or minus 25 years. As you can imagine, different palaeographers come up with different dates for various manuscripts, and while there can be broad consensus sometimes, there is rarely any date that is absolutely definitive.
You can also carbon 14 date the writing material — in this case parchment — but that requires using small pieces of it that are destroyed in the analysis, making it a less preferred method. When used, of course, they take small pieces that don’t have any ink on them! In any event, since it is based measuring the half-life of carbon 14, found in all organic material until it dies, this kind of text can certainly tell you (again) a range of dates within which it appears the the animal whose skin is being used (or the plant that is being used, in the case of papyrus) died, but not when the skin (or plan) was processed into a writing material or when, later, it was written on. Its usually thought that if the animal/plant was killed at a relatively determinable time, it was processed into parchment/papyrus and used as a writing material not long after, but that’s not necessarily always the case.
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QUESTION:
Is the “Messianic Secret” indicative of an oral tradition that Jesus never said he was the Messiah and Mark had to come up with a reason why?
(Quick) RESPONSE:
That’s one of the explanations people have. The way to evaluate it is to see if there are any indications that Jesus did call himself the messiah (that is, historically, apart from the fact that in a Gospel such as Mark he tries to keep it secret).
My sense is that he did tell his disciples, and that’s how the authorities found out about it and crucified him for it. But it wasn’t widely talked about in his life, and Mark may be explaining *that*.
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Hey Bart, Have you always held that Jesus saw himself as a Messiah? I strongly agree with this conclusion (it’s hard to explain away its prevalence in all early Pauline creeds and the gospels) but I didn’t know you actually held to it?
Nope. I of course thought that as an evangelical. From about the time of my PhD until probably 25 years ago or so I did not always think so. what ended up (or at least started) convincing me is that there is no other real way to explain his execution for calling himself king of the Jews (= messiah).
Dear Bart,
Whilst I can find where you’ve dated Papias here on your blog (130-140), I can’t find where you have done so in print. Have you, and if so, where, please?
Many thanks in advance.
Everywhere I talk about him. 🙂 (E.g., Jesus INterrupted, ch. 4; Jesus Before the Gsopels, pp 111 ff). But over the years I have fluctuated on precise dates, though always putting him between 110-140 CE.
Aha! That’s very useful – thank you. I’ve just looked up what you’ve written about Papias in Jesus before the gospels, and I also found your introduction to Papias in Loeb.
In both, you provide the range Papias is normally found within, but don’t explain why. Have you ever gone into the reasons why scholars place Papias in the opening decades of the second century?
The reason I ask is that I understand Papias used to be dated around the death of Polycarp (155) due to mistaking Papias for Papylas. Also, under Hadrian (117–138), again for misidentifying Papias, this time with Quadratus of Athens. As both of these have generally been accepted as errors, I’m left wondering why some scholars still place Papias in the 110-140 range – on what basis do they do so now?
I would be grateful for your view on the matter. Is the 110-140 range a hangover of a past, and erroneous dating, and scholars have been slow to update this assessment? Notably Carlson (2021:1), who has guest posted on this blog, places Papias in final years of the 1st C, rather than the opening of the 2nd C. Perhaps Papias’ date deserves reconsideration?
The dating is usually provided based on teh assumption that he is telling the truth that he knows people who were familiar with some of the followers of the disciples of Jesus. If Jesus’ disciples were all decesased by, say, 60-65, then their adult followrs were probably deceased 30 years or so later and …. So I imagine people are just doing the math. I don’t rememer off hand Stephen’s argument. Most people — not him — date Papias early because the think somehow he is living in the same generation of John AND because if he’s “early” then more obviously he must be fairly “accurate.” (It’s a funny argument, or at least assumption. It means people living today are accurate about what they say. What would that even mean??)
Where are you on the idea of a Pauline influence on Mark?
Thanks!
I don’t think there’s anything to suggest Mark had read any of the letters of Paul we now have; manyof his views are like those of Paul, but they are like those of lots of other folks as well. So I guess I see similarities but no compelling evidence of direct influence.
I had a wild thought. What if the author of Mark (“Mark”) privately was skeptical of the resurrection? Perhaps the abrupt ending with only women as witnesses – (who may have been seen as less reliable in that time and place) was a deliberate way to “telegraph” to the readers who could read between the lines that maybe this is all a bit too much to believe.
Interesting idea. You’ll be interested in my upcoming lectures on Other Doubting Thomases. (I’ll be announcing them soon)