In a previous post I discussed “accidental” changes of the text by scribes who appear simply to have made a mistake. There are other changes that almost certainly were not made by a slip of the pen (as when an entire verse is added!) and it seems clear in these instances that scribes changed the text because they chose to do so, for one reason or another. You can never tell for certain, of course — the scribes aren’t around to interview about the matter; so it’s often a judgment call. And often the judgment is rather difficult to make and involves an interesting issue (or two).
I’ll be illustrating the issue (how to tell if a change was an accident or made on purpose) by dealing with three of the most interesting textual variants in the Gospel of Mark, one of which is an easy problem to solve, one that is a bit more difficult, and one that has generated a lot of discussion over the years and no firm consensus.
The one textual problem that seems fairly easy to resolve occurs almost right off the bat. Mark begins his Gospel by indicating that his book will be “The beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ,” and then he launches into a Scriptural quotation (leading up to his introduction of John the Baptist):
“Just as was written in Isaiah the prophet, “Behold, I am sending my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way, a voice crying in the wilderness, ‘Prepare the way of the Lord”… And so on.
But in a lot of manuscripts, instead of saying that the Scripture quotation (“Behold I am sending,” etc.) comes from the writing of the prophet Isaiah, the quotation is said to be found “in the prophets.” So which is it? Did Mark say the quotation is from Isaiah or from the prophets? He almost certainly said one or the other, but scribes changed it. But which way did they change it, and why?
There are two reasons for being relatively certain about which text is the original and which is altered. The first may have occurred to you, if you have your entire Bibles memorized, as I’m sure so many of you do. The lines “Behold I am sending my messenger before you, who will prepare your way” are not found in the writings of Isaiah. These words appear to be a kind of loose quotation of Exodus 23:20 and Malachi 3:1 (the *second* part of the quotation, starting with “A voice crying in the wilderness” *does* come from Isaiah 40:3).
Now your first instinct might be to say that this would suggest that originally Mark wrote that the words came from “the prophets,” rather than from “Isaiah,” since in fact the words *don’t* come from Isaiah but from several books of the OT quoted together, so “in the prophets” would be correct and, technically speaking “in Isaiah” would be incorrect.
But your instinct is not shared by textual critics. In fact, it is precisely because “in the prophet Isaiah” is (technically) wrong, or could be seen as wrong, that critics are sure that it is what Mark originally wrote.
And why is that? It is because you have to ask yourself the question: which form of the text is the one that scribes might have found to be problematic and decided, therefore, to change? Is it one that makes perfectly good sense and is correct? Or is it one that doesn’t make good sense and seems to be incorrect? Suppose you were a scribe. Which of the two would you be more likely to want to change? Obviously the one that seems incorrect.
So text critics think that is the one that Mark originally wrote and the “improved” text is what scribes created. And their opinion is supported by one other compelling piece of evidence. It is *that* reading – the one that is harder to explain away and seems to be incorrect – that is found in all of our earliest and best manuscripts. It was only later, after the original reading had been in circulation, that a scribe (one whose change became widely accepted) altered it, so that instead of saying that a quotation that combines words from Exodus, Malachi, and Isaiah is taken from “Isaiah the prophet” it now says, unproblematically, that it is a quotation that comes from “the prophets.”
You will find this changed text (the one that is almost certainly not original) in the King James Version. You will find the other one in most of the modern translations.
Now you will have noticed that I have said that this original form of the text is “technically” speaking a mistake. Some interpreters would argue that it’s not really a mistake. In their view, the author, Mark, is simply indicating the most prominent of the three books as the source for a quotation that he has taken from parts of all of them. The textual critic – when she or he is working strictly as a textual critic – is not concerned about that question of whether the text is *really* a mistake or not.
The textual critic in a matter such as this is interested in two things and two things only:
- What is the oldest form of the text that we can establish? In this case, it is almost certainly “in Isaiah the prophet.”
- Why, when, and how was the text changed? In this case: it was changed because the original text could be perceived as a problem/mistake/error; it was changed by at least the year 400 or so, since that is the approximate date of the manuscripts that start having it; and it was changed by altering the words to say “in the prophets.”
Once the textual critic has established what the text actually *said* then interpreters can approach the text and explain what it *means* (in this case, explain why it is or is not an actual mistake). But they can’t do that until they know what words to interpret. That’s why textual criticism is such a foundational discipline within the field of New Testament studies. You can’t really do much of anything else without it.
I am pleasantly surprised to read that in versions after the KJ Bible, like the NKJV, the Mark passage was modified.
We also know – or so I think- that none of the HB prophecies apply to Jesus. Or are there any that do apply?
Would it be a stretch to expect that , progressively , those prophecies, which clearly eliminate Jesus as their subject, be modified or excised in future Bible editions? The Mark change seems a promising beginning.
Would it be a fatal blow to Christian faith if those ( Intentional? Unintentional?) assumed prophetic utterances were disclosed as errors in no uncertain ways?
In essence, nothing in the HB prefigures Jesus.
Who would dare write a book about that? It might include, I gather, a myriad of prophecies about other issues that were never fulfilled, both in the HB and the NT.
Or perhaps those misleading passages would always survive, as it can be claimed that the NT doesn’t specifically say that Jesus was ” not” foretold by this or that prophet.That is, with the benefit of the doubt, it is all a matter of faith or interpretation.
The question, in short, is how far can ” correction” go?
My view is that some of the changes and problems with the HB are significant and should affect what people believe about hte infallibility of the Bible and the connection of HB and NT, but they shouldn’t have any real effect on what has always been the essential message of Christianity.
Thanks! I completely agree. The message will endure as long as humans still populate this planet.
That’s why I wondered if such textual changes could be possible (ie, those passages that state alleged prophecies in the HB, which are not there). I remember at least in one of your books ( and video too) you actually explained this, in a general way, and/or related specifically to the ” Immanuel/young woman” Isaiah prophecy. I think it lit up my brain before the Markan change.
But I also understand, of course, that there is a big difference between discussing these passages ,however critically , and actually making changes to the Gospels.
Having said that, I wish we could erase an awful lot of toxic passages from the HB.
Yeah, from the NT too. 1 Tim. 2:12-15 has done a world of bad…. My sense is that committed Xns who come to realize that Matthew is using Isa. 7:14 in a way different from the way Isaiah “intended” it never then go on to say that Jesus was not actually born of a virgin. They instead say that Matthew saw a deeper meaning in what Isaiah was saying, or even that Matthew got the verse wrong but the historical “fact” (virgin birth) right.
I just recently had what I think is an original idea. Instead of the Trinity why not call God the Divine Family? “Trinity” seems to emphasize “more than one.” Families are often thought of as a single unit even though we all know they have multiple members. “Family” strikes me as a striking a better balance between unity and diversity.
Augustine I think suggested that the Spirit proceeded from the love between the Father and the Son. That’s sort of like giving birth.
In my mind though Jesus is better thought of as the son of the Father and the Spirit. And there is some warrant to think of the Spirit as feminine. Plus I’ve heard Catholic theologians suggest that Mary has taken the rightful place of the Spirit in Catholic devotions. Why not just push harder on the conflation of the two?
I suppose the downside of Divine Family in early Christianity was that it would have suggested the pagan gods, including their sexuality.
Anyway, are you aware of any Christian writers who have suggested the use of Family instead of Trinity?
The problem with “family” language is that it doesn’t get to the heart of the doctrine of the Trinity, that the “three are one.” Family language has been employed a lot though. Some have though of Father-Son- and Mother.
“Trinity” does blend “trio” and unity”. And maybe it does a better job of conveying the idea of equality than “family” does.
But in my own mind “family” conveys a “single” entity of some sort better than Trinity-maybe because family is more vague. Trinity almost automatically brings up the number three.
Family does suggest inequality but the Trinity already includes the son which in itself suggests inequality.
My understanding is that the Greek Orthodox Church teaches that the ultimate human goal is deification of some sort. It seems to me that that’s saying that our destiny is to become members of the “Trinity”—though I’ve been disabused of that idea by teachers.
what are the other two textual variants you were going to discuss? In your post you mention three textual variants one of which is easy to reconcile, the other two increasingly more difficult to do so. It looks like you were going to describe three separate instances of such variation found in different parts of the Markan text
Getting to it.
Isn’t it more likely that Mark has taken the Malachi quote from Matthew 11 and combined it with Matthew 3 but forgotten to up the reference to Isaiah, rather than both Matthew and Luke noticing Mark misattributed the verse and both moving it to a later chapter in their gospels?
You’d have to make an argument for *why* it is more likely. It can’t come down to what we personally prefer or think.
It would be a simple numbers game. Mark changing Matthew/Luke would be a single change producing an error in Mark.
The other way round we need both Matthew and Luke to realise Mark has made an error and fix in the same way. Either could have amended Mark to say “according to Malachi” or amend as later scribes did to say “in the prophets”. Or simply removed the verse all together.
But they have both decided to take the Malachi verse and move it to fit in with the John the baptist account later.
Taken in isolation, in this one instance, doesn’t Markan posteriority require less assumptions than Markan priority here and so be the more likely explanation for his error in 1.2?
Yes, that’s the issue of “minor agreements” when trying to solve the Synoptic Problem. That said, out of the many hundreds of experts on how to solve the problem, I’m not sure I know of more than one or maybe two who still hold to Matthean priority. IT’s becauase of teh massive evidence in total, not an individual instance here or there that seems odd, that virtually eveyone holds to Markan priority. I guess I”ve said that before, and I don’t know if you’ve read the detailed scholarship on the issue.
But there isn’t a massive total of evidence in favor of Markan priority. As Mark Goodacre says “There is, nevertheless, something disturbing about a situation in which none of the standard text books find it easy to provide strong, textual grounds for believing that it was Mark and not Matthew who wrote first, particularly given the universal Patristic support for the opposite view.”
The evidence pile in favor of Mark is only impressive given that nothing is allowed to count as evidence for Matthew. If the same weakness in evidence was allowed for Matthew writing first as for Mark not only would the pile in favor of Matthew be far larger but all the actual strong evidence would be in the Matthew pile.
There’s no instance of an error in Matthew which is best explained as an edit of Mark, like there is with Mark’s quoting Malachi in error.
OK, but Goodacre is firmly convinced by Markan Priority. You may want to look into why. And again, it’s not clear you’ve actually read all teh very weighty arguments and the evidence behind them.
I know why he’s convinced of Markan priority, but I know why it’s wrong. The arguments for Matthew are much stronger.
Prof Ehrman,
I am working on Artificial Intelligence / Machine Learning related papers and I wanted your suggestion on Introductory books on the current consensus on New Testament History.
Introduction to the New Testament History and Literature, Ehrman, is one, and maybe you can add 2-3 other books similar to these?
I will probably email you the results after 3 years if it works out.
It depends what you mean by “NT History.” Do you mean a historical account of what actually happened in the first century of Christianity?
Yes, a historical account of what you would teach your 1st-semester students’ Intro to NT. Like, what Dale Martin teaches in his Yale Open Courses.
WEll, my textbook on the NT (THe New Testament from a Historical Perspective) is a place to start (it’s the book Martin used for his classes); he too has a textbook on the NT, which would be another place. There are lots of books on the historical JEsus (Dale Allison, Paula Fredriksen, E P Sanders, and roughly 8 million others); on teh historical Paul (Sanders again, Bert Harrill, tons more), etc. Maybe start with the textbooks and then go to their bibliographies for further reading?
Hi Bart,
How do scholars explain Mark’s amalgamation of these verses from Exodus, Malachi, and Isaiah? You briefly mentioned one scenario in the post. It also seems possible Mark doesn’t know his Hebrew Bible that well or that he is essentially constructing scripture from various passages to support his views. Am I way off here? Hope the question made sense. Thanks again!
Some have argued that he must have known his Bible exceedingly well to pull it off, that this was a rabbinic technique of taking similar passages and conflating them to create a new meaning. (Not that he was a rabbi, but that he was using ancient methods of citation and interprtation that are very much unlike what we try to follow and enodrse today)
Hello! Dr. Ehrman, do you believe that the dialogues between Jesus and Necodimus, Jesus and Pilate (and Pilate’s wife when she dreamed of Jesus based on the Gospels) were made up or simply traditions that made it into the gospels? Please share your thoughts on this.
I’m not sure I see this as an either / or. I don’t think they are historical, so in some sense they were “made up” (though not necessariily invented intentionally; rumors start all the time for things that didn’t happen without anyone perpetrating a deception); but once they were in circulation they were indeed traditions that made it into the Gospels.