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Loading...If early Christians were monotheists, how could they claim that someone other than the One God was also God and yet still say there was in fact only one God? That will be the first issue to figure out if we want to understand how the doctrine of the trinity developed. With respect to Christ, if he was a human, how was he divine? In other words, how could ancient people get their minds around that? Not just whether he was divinely handsome or divinely wise – but actually Divine? In some sense a God? (I will, over this thread, emphasize the terms “in some sense,” as you will see).
A couple of weeks ago I talked on the blog about some special individuals in the Greco-Roman world who were understood to be both human and divine because they had one of each kind as a parent. Typically this involved a mortal woman who was attractive to one of the gods (Zeus / Jupiter wasn’t the only one, but he was the most notorious), who then temporarily assumed human form (or some other animal or inanimate form) in order to have sex with her. These cases were not virgin births. The stories are quite explicit at times that there was very serious sex involved. But these demi-gods were both human and divine. In Homer’s Odyssey, for example, Heracles is down in Hades with other mortals but his “real self” is up above feasting with the gods. Very odd.
The most common way to imagine a human as a god was not by a mixed parentage but something entirely different: the long-standing tradition in Greek and Roman circles that some particularly amazing humans could be taken up to live with the gods in heaven. These people are made immortal. And for ancient people, “immortal” was another way to refer to the gods, often simply called “the immortals.”
Here is how I talk about humans who become gods in my book How Jesus Became God, explaining the with reference to a specific, allegedly historical instance of it happening (there were others!).
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Romulus
One of the most striking involves the legendary founder of Rome, Romulus. We have several accounts of the life of Romulus, including one produced by the great early historian of Rome, Livy (59 CE – 17 CE), who in one place states the opinion that Romulus was a “god born of a god” (History of Rome 1. 16). The event that most interests us involves the end of Romulus’s life.
There were, to be sure, rumors of divine involvement in Romulus’s conception. His mother was…
This is one of the most intriguing views to come down to us from Greek and Roman traditions. Want to see how it works? If you are not a blog member yet, join up so you can keep reading. Who knows how helpful it may be to see how a human can become divine!
In Celtic myths, not only could men become gods but gods could become men if they fell on hard times. If the country was Christianized they could even become saints.
His mother was a Vestal Virgin, a sacred office that required – as the name indicates – a woman to abstain from sexual relations. But she became pregnant. Obviously something went wrong with her vows. She claimed, however, that the god Mars was responsible. Possibly some people believed her.
What do you mean that ‘possibly some people believed her’ when this is obviously a legend (Romulus wasn’t a real person; there were no Vestal Virgins in the 8th century BCE, Livy isn’t working from written sources here, there is good evidence that this whole story is no earlier than the 5th century BCE and quite possibly later)?
I mean in the story that Livy tells there is a suggestion that some people agreed with her; that’s why Romulus himself, in part, was divine. In other words, I”m explaining what was happening in Livy’s *story*, not what happened in history.
Dr. Ehrman,
I found this post immensely fascinating!
It just so happened that I was reading Homer’s Iliad today and came across these lines which speak of the offspring of the union of a god with a virgin human woman, the result of which was apparently a “divine human”. This union is clearly portrayed by Homer as a rape of the virgin woman by the god, Mars. It is interesting how Luke and Matthew’s accounts of the virgin birth distance themselves from these kinds of accounts. They do not have Yahweh seeking sexual gratification and raping a virgin human woman, in fact, no sexual encounter occurs in these accounts. But, it does seem they are hoping to get something out of the idea of a “divine human”. They portray Jesus as a unique human, specially empowered by God, in a unique relationship with God, who is “like God”, even “equal to God”, but still not God and not another god.
“…the son of Azeus, born Of fair Astyoche, a maiden pure, Till in the upper chamber, where she slept, Stout Mars by stealth her virgin bed assail’d…” – Homer,. The Iliad (AmazonClassics Edition) (pp. 56-57). Amazon Classics. Kindle Edition.
Yup, Iliad 2.514. She is indeed called a “parthenos” whom Ares made pregnant. But nothing in the text indicates she had never had sex before. Possibly! In Homer “parthenos” means a girl (young) who has never been married, without reference to how sexually active, or not, she has been. Unfortunately nothing else is said of Astyoche….
Hmm. I’m guessing the translation I’m using is adding it’s interpretation of the passage, then? Because it calls her “a maiden pure” and refers to her bed as a “virgin bed”. I don’t know Greek and this is the first time I’ve read this work, so, I’m a little disadvantaged here.
Yes, it’s an old translation — I”m not sure whose. The first hint was that it names the God Mars (the Roman god) rather than Ares. “Maiden pure” is meant to be a way of saying “virgin,” even though PARTHENOS doesn’t necessarily have to mean that; and “virgin bed” is a bit of a stretch; the Greek says “bed in the upper room.”
Do you think the Jews had such a concept of their great prophets like Moses and Elijah becoming divine in some way? It might explain why in the Gospels on the mount of transfiguration those two men are said to appear and talk with Jesus.
Do you think the Jews had such a concept of their great prophets like Moses and Elijah becoming divine in some way? It might explain why in the Gospels on the mount of transfiguration those two men are said to appear and talk with Jesus.
Ah, I”m getting to that! (short answer: some did!)
A post-mortem appearance, instructions to “go, … and declare … teach … ”, and then an ascension. It sounds like the endings of the Synoptic gospels!
Prof, can you point to earlier posts where you discuss the literary genre of the gospels and how/whether its similar to Graeco-Roman biographies? Thanks.
You’ll find some posts if you search for “biographies” or probably even “bioi” (the Greek name for the genre)
I am fascinated to learn about ancient Rome and how they regarded some of their leaders/Emperors, divine in a sense. I am curious Prof., You say,” as this happens because of the person’s great merit’.1) Was there ever any miraculous work involved or performed by these Emperors that was documented or was it strictly meritocracy? 2) It is interesting as you stated, that Livy, although he believed Romulus was murdered as a despot, still wrote the story of an ascension/appearance verified by Julius. Do you think Livy was sold on the testimony of Julius?
1. Yes, Vespasian is reputed to have done actual miracles; 2) Livy reports two versions of what happened, either that he was taken up to heaven as the senators with him claimed; or that he was murdered and dismembered by the senators. He appears to prefer the latter, as you suggest. LIke lots of historians at the time, he is simply relating the various versions of what happened.
So, Jesus was just another Romulus? This sounds like something Barbara Thiering might theorize about.
I don’t know if Barbara Thiering would say that kind of thing or not. I certainly never have or would. Jesus and Romulus were extraordinarily different. But there certainly are striking similarities between stories told of Romulus’s end and Jesus’s. I don’t see why that should be a problem necessarily, even for believers. Christian apologists from Justin Martyr to C. S. Lewis had no difficulty with this kind of similarity…
Acts 14:11-13 – ” When the crowds saw what Paul had done, they raised their voice, saying in the Lycaonian language, “The gods have become like men and have come down to us.” 12 And they began calling Barnabas, Zeus, and Paul, Hermes, because he was the chief speaker. 13 The priest of Zeus, whose temple was just outside the city, brought oxen and garlands to the gates, and wanted to offer sacrifice with the crowds.”
The notion or concept of a form of incarnation was already around prior to and during Paul’s day.
Perhaps professed (Jewish & non-Jewish) followers of Jesus during the earliest period of the post easter experience interpreted Jesus with these incarnational ideas that later theologically became more refined in Christian Christology?
If Paul can be misinterpreted as a god who become like a man and has come down to us, then imagine those people whom witnessed Jesus and his miracles both during his ministry and later heard those stories about Jesus? wouldnt take much to misinterpret Jesus too?
Are you familiar with claims that the NT texts were originally written in Aramaic and then translated into Greek? If so, could you discuss the origins and the evidence for and against these claims.
Oh yes, that’s been around for a long time. There is very powerful evidence against it. One is that if the Gospels were written originally in Aramaic and then translated into Greek, you wouldn’t have such extensive word-for-word agreements in them in GREEK (translators never translated entire paragraphs word for word the same). Also the text abound in Greek grammatical constructions that are not Semitic. ETc. It’s really not an issue anyone debates much any more.
Yes, the similarities – rarely. if ever, the differences.
A nit, if I may be so bold as to pick it: Both above and on page 25 of How Jesus Became God you have the typographical error “Livy (59 CE – 17 CE)”. Perhaps you were thinking of Benjamin Button. 🙂
Ha! Either LIvy or I is backwards….
Hello, Dr. Ehrman. I just want to say thank you for what you do. I support the movement of your blog.
Can you blog about Gospel of Thomas again? Or can you blog about Jupiter in Roman days?
I still think this one is funny
(30) Jesus said, “Where there are three gods, they are gods. Where there are two or one, I am with him.”
(31) Jesus said, “No prophet is accepted in his own village; no physician heals those who know him.”
Jesus, there gods!
Gods are one with
Prophet in village
Heals
Know
/
Know
Heals village
In prophet
With one are gods.
Gods, there Jesus!
I wonder why Bart and other scholars do not include the “canonical” Moses in the list of men turned gods? In the Exodus, Moses is made Elohim to Jews (Aaron, 4:16) and Gentiles (pharaoh, 7:1). Moses prophesies that gentiles will worship before him (11:8) just like Israelites did towards God (33:10). The alleged fashioner of the golden calf, high priest Aaron calls him Adoni – My Lord-an appellation used for YHVH earlier in Exodus 4:10-and he is spared from the capital punishment. Again he prays to him for the forgiveness of sins (Numbers 12:11) and is spared again from leprosy. Israelites collectively call him My Lord and declare themselves his slaves or worshipers (Numbers 32:25) and consider him their Lord besides YHWH (36:2) – some binitarians could even say they split the Shema. Trinitarians might even suggest that together with Elijah and Jesus, he formed the Triune Son which some apostles worshipped at Horeb (Matthew 17:5-6). I would really like to hear what Bart thinks about this “mystery” finally revealed on his blog. Shalom or Selam, it’s the same.
I’m not opposed to it in principle. It’s just that the exodus narrative is quite clear that Moses is not a divine being but human in every way. Being made a God to others is another way of talking about a divine emissary (i.e., sent from God, fully representing him; not personally divine. “Lord” is a term used of masters. Others can pray for forgiveness for others or deliverance from illness. He certainly is not portrayed as God in Matthew, I would say. So it’s an interesting idea but I don’t thin kI see it.
My hypothetical “mystery” was more like a logical exercise in trying to illustrate that:
(1) a human “god” can be found even in the Torah – as a prototype of Jesus we see depicted in the gospels (the prophet-servant may be called god-lord, prays to God but is also a recipient of prayer).
(2) if one has an agenda (like most Christian theologians) of looking for a visible human god to worship alongside the Invisible non-human God, well Moses and Elijah might fully qualify using “scriptural” bits and pieces useful for this type of enterprise. Elijah (My God Yah) is even worshiped by Obadiah (worshiper of Yah) as Lord, and even responds I Am (KJV, 1Kings 18:7-8). Moses in the synoptics even precedes Jesus in being alive after his death and appearing on earth to Jewish guys (the 3 apostles) who by the way seem to recognize him (and Elijah) without any need for introductions, as if this were a common occurrence in Palestine. So, why consider Jesus so special and unique, when all his titles and functions (e.g. miracles, distributing the spirit) seem to have been already “documented” in the careers of his senior colleagues?
I guess because these others were not raised from the dead and made equal with God?
So, why dying and being resuscitated (as a non-spirit flesh and bone Lukan Jesus), or being transformed into a spiritual body (angelic Pauline Jesus) is more “divine” than: (a) not dying at all like the immortal flesh and blood Elijah, or (b) living in a (presumably) after death spiritual body like Moses? Exactly, by which Jewish (or Greaco-Roman) criteria do Christians evaluate one mode of being a human “god” as better than the other two? Why is one Jewish guy considered kosher to worship and the other two are simply ignored, especially when the apostles prostrate in terror following the Matthean voice which declares them a triune Son, (in Matthew it is only after the declaration and prostration that they disappear from sight – against Luke who is careful to surgically remove them just before the declaration reserved uniquely for Jesus)? Most Christians do worship local patron saints in every village and town, how could they miss these guys?
I”m not sure different Christians with different Christologies ever use any kind of disinterested criteria to prove that there’s is better…..