In my previous post I tried to show what the author of James is almost certainly claiming to be “that” James, the actual brother of Jesus.  In this post and the next will be explaining why it probably (well, almost certainly was not, in my view) written by him.

I’ve decided, as is my occasional wont, to get down into the weeds a bit here; sometimes that’s important because it’s oh so very easy to give broad and general reasons for a view that are so general and broad they’re not convincing to anyone who wants to get the real low down.  So here we go, down low.  (This taken from my book Forgery and Counterforgery, but I’ve edited it a bit to make it more user friendly, including by removing the academic footnotes).

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There are solid reasons for thinking that whoever wrote this letter, it was not James, the brother of Jesus.  The first, as already mentioned, is that James of Nazareth could almost certainly not write.  That of course, needs to be demonstrated.

Whoever produced this letter was a highly literate native speaker of Greek, grounded in Hellenistic modes of discourse and able to use abundant rhetorical devices and flourishes. It is often noted that the book employs a sophisticated use of participles, infinitives, and subordinate clauses.  Even Luke T. Johnson, a supporter of authenticity, points out that the language consists of “a form of clear and correct koine with some ambitions toward rhetorical flourish… comparable in quality if less complex in texture, to that of Hebrews.”

Johnson also notes that the author makes vigorous use of rhetorical devices found in many Greco-Roman moral discourses, but associated especially with the diatribe.  Matt Jackson-McCabe, concurs:  not only does the author evidence a “relatively high proficiency in Greek grammar, vocabulary, and style”; he “is “more generally at home in literate, Hellenistic culture,” using commonplaces of Greco-Roman moralistic literature (horses with bits, ships and rudders, controlling the tongue in order to control the body, and so on).

It seems unlikely that an Aramaic-speaking peasant from rural Galiliee wrote this.  We don’t know how James earned a living, but he was almost certainly a day-laborer (was he an apprentice carpenter?)  But the remote little hamlet of Nazareth has been excavated and archaeologist have turned up no public buildings, let alone signs of literacy.  Even if James’s well-known brother could read – and so was considered highly exceptional by his townsfolk (Luke 4:16; cf. Mark 6:2) – it would have been Hebrew; nothing suggests that Jesus could write; if he could do so it would have been in Hebrew  or Aramaic, not Greek.  And by all counts he was the star of the family.

There are solid reasons for thinking that whoever wrote this letter, it was not James, the brother of Jesus.  The first, as already mentioned, is that James of Nazareth could almost certainly not write.  That of course, needs to be demonstrated.

This was a part of the world where literacy was likely 1-2% or even less (I’ve discussed that earlier in the blog, basing my views on the authoritative study of Catherine Hezser, Literacy in Roman Palestine).  Where would James have learned to write Hebrew?  Or to read Greek?  To write Greek?  To write literary Greek?  Greek that shows knowledge of the diatribe? And that uses rhetorical flourishes known from Greco-Roman moralists?

All of that would have taken many years of intensive education, and there is precisely zero indication that James, the son of a local tekton (a word that refers to someone who works with his hands; possibly a carpenter but also perhaps a stone or metal worker), would have had the leisure or money for an education as a youth.  Moreover, there were no adult education classes to make up the deficit after his brother’s death years later.

One should not reason that James could have picked up Greek after Jesus’ death on some of his travels.  If he did learn any Greek, it would have been of a fumbling kind for simple conversation; writing literacy was not (and is not) acquired by sporadic conversations in a second language – especially writing literacy at this level.   And James certainly would not have mastered the Scriptures in Greek, as the author of this letter has done (see James 2:8-11, James 23; 4:6).

And so, despite the remarkably sanguine claims of some scholars about the Greek-writing skills of uneducated rural peasants of Nazareth, it is virtually impossible to imagine this book coming from the pen of James.  The conclusion of  Matthias Konradt is understated at best: “it remains questionable . . . whether one might expect the rhetorical and linguistic niveau of James from a Galilean craftman’s son.”

More apt is the statement of Wilhelm Pratscher:  “Even if one assumes a widespread dissemination of Greek in first century C.E. Palestine, one will nevertheless scarcely consider possible the composition of James by the brother of the Lord, especially when one compares it to the markedly simpler Greek of the Diaspora Jew Paul.”

Other arguments support the claim that James the brother of Jesus almost certainly did not write the letter.  Of key importance is the fact that precisely what we know about James of Jerusalem otherwise is what we do not find in this letter.   The earliest accounts of James – one of them from a contemporary – indicate that he was especially known as an advocate for the view that Jewish followers of Jesus should maintain their Jewish identity by following the Jewish Law.

This seems to be the clear indication of Gal. 2:12 in the famous Antioch incident.  “Certain men from James” influenced Cephas no longer to eat with the Gentiles, out of “fear of those from the circumcision.”   The most sensible construction of the incident is that these “men” were representatives of James’s perspective, that he was a leader of the so-called circumcision party, and that this group of Christians, with him at the head, insisted on the ongoing importance of Jews maintaining their Jewish identity, which meant, in light of concerns stemming from rules of kashrut, not eating with Gentiles.

So too, the book of Acts.  Despite its concern for the Gentile mission and its insistence that Gentiles not convert to Judaism to be followers of Jesus, Acts portrays James as a Jew deeply concerned that Jewish followers of Jesus maintain their Jewishness.  Nowhere is this more evident than in the incident in Acts 21:18-24, where James, after agreeing with Paul about Gentiles, nonetheless wants Paul, as a Jew, to demonstrate to other Jews that he has not at all abandoned his own commitment to keeping the Law.  The incident is obviously to be suspected historically, as an invention of “Luke.”  But even as such, it confirms the traditional view that James, a Jewish follower of Jesus, was intent not to violate anything in the rituals prescribed in the Jewish Law.

So too in the fragmentary report of book 5 of Hegesippus’s now lost Memoirs, quoted by Eusebius (H.E. 2.23), possibly dating to the early second century.  Here James is said to have remained a Nazirite his entire life, to have had special access to the Jewish Temple, and to have prayed there so regularly that his knees became as calloused as a camel’s. Moreover, according to this account, James’s concern was entirely for the Jewish people, many of whom he converted to the consternation of the Jewish leaders in Jerusalem, leading to his martyrdom by the sanctuary.

Hegesippus indicates that this happened immediately before the siege of Jerusalem; Eusebius claims that it is what led (theologically) to the destruction of Jerusalem. What all of these early accounts suggest about James of Jerusalem is that he was known to be particularly invested in seeing that Jewish followers of Jesus maintained their distinctiveness, vis-à-vis the rest of the world, by holding fast to their Jewish identity culturally and cultically.

I will conclude this discussion in my next post, where I show that precisely the concerns and interests our various sources attribute to James the brother of Jesus are noticeably missing from this letter.

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2025-09-10T13:12:51-04:00August 5th, 2025|Catholic Epistles|

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25 Comments

  1. charrua August 5, 2025 at 3:47 pm

    “it remains questionable . . . whether one might expect the rhetorical and linguistic niveau of James from a Galilean craftman’s son.”

    Indeed !!!

    To master a foreign language is not easy at all!

    And there is a very big difference between reading and writing in a foreign language.

    I myself, a native Spanish speaker, can easily read all the articles and posts here on the blog without assistance,but when it comes to writing… things get really hard.

    Both English and Spanish (as well as Greek) are Indo-European languages, share a lot of vocabulary, and both use the Latin alphabet.
    But Hebrew and Aramaic are Semitic languages.
    So I think that for an Aramaic native speaker, it would be very difficult to master Greek—
    a language from a different language family, written in a different alphabet.

    Of course, we have the works of Josephus written in Greek, but I think that’s not a good example.
    Literature Nobel Prize winner Vargas Llosa wrote articles and essays in English and French—
    that doesn’t mean any Spanish-speaking worker could do the same!

  2. Steefen August 5, 2025 at 6:41 pm

    Dr. Ehrman,
    Scholar Nina Livesey proposed the Pauline Letters was a pseudonymous fictive collection of letters produced bu associates of Marcion. The ancient Roman literary context is such that pseudonymous fictive collections of letters were commonplace (correspondence between Seneca and Paul, Ovid’s Heroides). Irenaeus needed scripture and used the fictive letters of Paul as scripture. Opponents of Marcion edited the Pauline letters in his collection.

    A rebuttal to this is: whereas Marcion “found” Galations, those against Marcion’s collection of Pauline letters “found” Pauline letters and published their own collection listed in the Muratorian fragment of 170 CE and listed by Origen in 230 CE.

    QUESTION 1: Was Paul’s letter to the Romans found in Rome by opponents of Marcion and a search went out to the places of Paul’s travels to find other letters so they could be sent to Rome for editing and compilation in a collection to replace or compete with Marcion’s collection?

    Josephus partially wrote if not fully wrote the Testimonium Flavianum. With Paul causing an uproar in Jerusalem then going to Rome; and, both Paul and Josephus being shipwrecked in Puteoli on the way to Rome,

    QUESTION 2: do you think Josephus knew of Jesus but not Paul?

    • BDEhrman August 6, 2025 at 4:50 pm

      1. There’s no evidence of that, no. Ignatius appears to know of Paul’s letter to the Romans, before Marcion.
      2. Yes.

      • Steefen August 7, 2025 at 7:39 pm

        Robert, one of your administrators, responds:
        Depends on whether one follows the majority early dating of Ignatius or the minority later dating of Ignatius.

        Wikipedia, indeed, says there are different claims when Ignatius died:

        Eusebius: c 108 CE
        Pervo: 135-140 CE
        Barnes: 140s CE

        Marcion created his canon, which included the Apostolikon, sometime around 130–140 AD.

        Question: So your implied refutation of Livesey is based on an early dating of the life of Ignatius–you can tell us why Pervo and Barnes failed to make their case against Eusebius about when Ignatius died?

        • BDEhrman August 8, 2025 at 1:12 am

          I’d say the dating of Ignatius’s letters to 110 or so is by far the most widely held view for a number of pretty good reasons; it’s not some kind of attempt to put him earlier than he was. I give some discussion of it in the introductoin to my translation of his letters in the Loeb volume (involving internal evidence, the relationship to Polycarp, etc.). It’s rare that someone dates him later. Of course some scholars do — just as some date the Gospel of Mark or the Gospel of Thomas to the 50s. *That* would be an “early dating” since it is earlier than the evidence seems to suggest. I’m not aware of Pervo or Barnes having ocnvinced many Ignatius scholars, and I haven’t looked at the issue for many years. Which of their arguments strike you as persuasive?

          • Steefen August 8, 2025 at 6:44 am

            Eusebius may have had an agenda to connect early bishops directly back to the apostles. To reinforce apostolic succession, Eusebius may have dated Ignatius’ death early. (Pervo)

            Barnes used internal textual evidence . With Ignatius alluding/quoting Ptolemy whose active period began in the 130s, Ignatius must have lived and written later with his martyrdom actually being in the 140s.

            = = = =

            Robert spoke of the debate around the Middle Recension. If the middle recension is authentic, it provides a near-contemporary witness (c. 110 CE) to early church structure, Christology, and martyrdom theology. If not authentic, our picture of Ignatius’ theology and his knowledge of Pauline letters (like Romans) could be based on a later editor’s work, possibly mid-2nd century or later.

            Steve at 1:43am central time in Plano, TX

          • BDEhrman August 8, 2025 at 4:21 pm

            Yes, Eusebius does indeed have an agenda; but the dating is normally done on internal grounds, and a date around 110 works very well. Notice Pervo is suggesting not stating it, if you’re representing him correctly here. I don’t remember: where does Ignatius quote Ptolemy? And how does he explain Polycarp speaking of Ignatius’s martyrdom in a letter written long before the 140s? (I suppose he dates Polycarp later as well? That would be a bit hard to demonstrate). And yes, the debate about the middle recension is fascinating. Lightfoot still has a compelling case.

    • Steefen August 11, 2025 at 11:48 pm

      Steefen:
      Barnes does not quote Ptolemy directly in the Ignatian letters. Instead, he posits that Ignatius is engaging with ideas that echo Ptolemaic theology. There is no specific phrase or line in Ignatius that names Ptolemy or directly quotes from his Letter to Flora or any other writing. Barnes’s argument is based on contextual inference, noting shared thematic terrain between Ptolemaic Gnosticism and what Ignatius responds to.

      Ignatius sounds like he is responding to Ptolemy AND Marcion because both Ptolemy and Marcion taught that the supreme God is not the Creator of the material world.

      Bart:
      If two authors have ideas that are roughly similar, it doesn’t mean that A knew B, B may have known A, or, more likely, they both knew of an idea in circulation otherwise.

      Steefen:
      I’ve heard you use the argument: a text is responding to later developments in Christology that’s why it cannot be dated at some early date. So, if Ptolemy and Marcion hold an idea about God and Ignatius responds to that theology, that is why Barnes is saying Ignatius cannot respond to their theology until it becomes an issue.

      • BDEhrman August 12, 2025 at 8:29 pm

        My point is that htere has to be clear evidence that one author is responding to another. It is not enough that they express similar ideas. If you read my detailed discussoins you’re referring to (e.g., that the author of James is responding to a kind of understanding as found in Ephesians) you’ll see that it is not based broadly on some kind of similar ideas but on significant details very difficult to explain otherwise.

  3. Karlpeeter August 5, 2025 at 8:49 pm

    Hello Dr.Bart Erhman
    Dale Alison has said that he thinks that the 12 might have all seen Jesus because it is recorded in all the gospels? What do you think?

  4. Stephen Steps Out August 5, 2025 at 10:15 pm

    Hi Bart! Thanks for your blog! I am somewhat baffled by your conviction that Jesus/James/John/Peter/Matthew were all illiterate oiks. As Jews, would they not have been taught to read Torah in the synagogue as children? Is this not absolutely fundamental to their national religion?

    Jews today teach their children to read the Tanakh in Hebrew from an early age – off course before printing and books, this would have likely be restricted to the community synagogue. Jesus is said to read in the Nazareth synagogue in Luke!

    Further, Nazareth is a few miles from Sephorris, where surely it is reasonable to think that the family would have worked and traded, and very possibly become acquainted with Greek. And a tradesman family would be highly-incentivized to be adapt at communicating in the city’s languages! And if it’s true the family spent time in Egypt as well, they could have all become rather adept at picking up languages.

  5. Stephen Steps Out August 5, 2025 at 10:18 pm

    Plus, if Jesus is real, and he was an actual Rabbi with actual disciples, who taught Torah – amongst other things – then it makes sense he picked disciples to further his mission who were, indeed, literate. Further, Jesus emphasized the written Torah as the “real” Torah, above the Pharisees’ “oral Torah”. James went on to became a highly-esteemed leader – and a Torah-observant highly-esteemed leader to boot – so I don’t really understand your conviction here at all.

    I come from watching your podcasts, rather than reading your books, so apologies if I have missed your explanation of this. I do note your referral to Catherine Hezser’s work, which I was unaware of, so thanks for that. I do appreciate that regarding the epistle’s authenticity there are other factors to consider – I’m just baffled in particular on this illiteracy conviction which I have seen you express many times regarding Peter/James/John/Matthew.

  6. jblakers August 6, 2025 at 5:54 am

    Maybe the gold that the family received from the wise men was put to good use and gave all the kids a private education. What else could they have done with all that filthy lucre?

  7. n3iii August 8, 2025 at 7:55 pm

    it is much easier to believe that an illiterate man could write a sophisticated letter in a language he never knew, than to believe his brother could rise from the dead.

  8. Martine August 12, 2025 at 2:47 am

    H I art—I just listened to a podcaster argue the disciples named employed scribes to write Jesus’ biography in correct Greek. There you go.

    • BDEhrman August 12, 2025 at 8:35 pm

      Hey, it’s easy to say when you’ve heard others say it. But try finding some ancient evidence that that sorta thing ever happened!!

  9. sLiu August 16, 2025 at 4:41 pm

    I read the 3Wisemen gifts were used for Joseph’s excursion to Egypt

    2. around y2k after focusing on typing in books by Andrew Murray & G Campbell
    Morgan when
    I learned the gospels were 4 separate books, not 1.

    I was riding my bike on the streets of Shanghai rejoicing that the followers of Jesus learnt Greek [were fluent] also via rigorous study & HS. folks on Quora wrote that everyone in Capernum had to be fluent in Greek to do trading.

    the church that I grew up in had a program in Taiwan for fulltimers [door knockers] to learn enough Hebrew & Greek to translate the Bible.

    years earlier 1988 when I can say I was excommunicated. The Church in Rosemead not Witness Lee chosen elder replied to me. I DON’T CARE WHAT YOU HAVE TO SAY. ANYWAYS YOU DON ‘T COME OFTEN.

    I did the 1st semester, but there was an uprising in the leadership of that locale. That confused my spirit & thinking, as I entered undergrad & had to focus on studies. While best being obedient

    So I was correcting the preaching as I learned from “evil” Catholics a better history surrounding a biblical event.

    That’s how cults operate without logic!

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