I am very pleased to announce that the book of my former student, Jason Staples, The Idea of Israel in Second-Temple Judaism, has just appeared from Cambridge University Press. Jason did his PhD here at UNC and this is part of his dissertation. I say “part” because the dissertation was large, and he has divided it into two separate monographs; the second will be dealing with how the term “Israel” is used in the writings of Paul — in particular, what Paul might mean when he says “All Israel will be saved” (Rom. 11:26) — an unusually thorny statement that has generated a huge amount of research and opinion over the years (all the usual and fairly commonsense explanations are problematic, for one compelling reason or another). Jason thinks he has found the solution. That will be volume 2!
Here he presents for us one of the issues he address in vol. 1, related to the overall topic of the book. Short question: what is the difference in the ancient world between talking about “Israel” and “Jews.” (Have an opinion? Keep reading!)
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If you read nearly any book or article of biblical scholarship from the past century, you’ll notice that when scholars talk about the time after the destruction of Jerusalem by the Babylonians in 587/86 BCE, they tend to use the term “Israel” interchangeably with “the Jews,” often even alternating between the two terms for stylistic purposes. You’ll also tend to hear about the return of “Israel” to the land after the fall of Babylon to the Persians and about Jesus’ ministry in “Israel.” And on the face of it, all this seems natural enough: isn’t it obvious that “Israel” is synonymous with the people also called Jews? After all, the modern Jewish state is named “Israel” for a reason!
As it turns out, things weren’t quite so simple in the Second Temple period—the time roughly between the seventh century BCE and the second century CE and the period that produced both Judaism and Christianity. For one thing, although generations of scholars have taken for granted that “Israelite” is effectively synonymous with “Jew,” it has long been recognized that these two terms are not treated as entirely interchangeable in ancient literature and instead tend to appear in different contexts. But an explanation for the differences in how these apparently synonymous terms are used in that literature has been difficult to come by. At present, most scholars presume that “Israel” was an “insider” term used and preferred by Jews themselves while “Jew” was an “outsider” label typically used in contexts involving non-Jews (that is, gentiles).
That explanation derives from the entry on these terms in the popular Theological Dictionary of the New Testament. That entry was written by Karl G. Kuhn in 1938 and argues that unlike the insider term “Israel,” the term “Jew” sometimes carried a “derogatory or contemptuous sense,” with Jews/Israelites preferring the more respectful “Israel” but accommodating to the sometimes-disrespectful outsider usage when in contexts involving outsiders. But it’s telling that Kuhn provides no evidence for the claim that “Jew” ever carried a derogatory nuance in pre-Christian antiquity, nor has such evidence has been found in the decades since Kuhn published his article. This kind of derogatory or contemptuous nuance of “Jew” was, however, a notable feature of the context in which Kuhn proposed his theory: prewar Nazi Germany.
Kuhn himself was an early (1932) member of the Nazi party and was one of fifteen appointed members of the Nazi-established “Research Department for the Jewish Problem.” Stunningly, he regularly gave lectures on Rabbinic Judaism while wearing a Nazi paramilitary SA (Sturmabteilung) uniform complete with “honor dagger” (Ehrendolch). He also gave a number of lectures on the so-called “Jewish Problem” (Judenfrage), advocating the boycott of Jewish businesses in a 1933 speech and giving an address on the “Jewish Problem” less than a month after the tragic “Kristallnacht” (night of broken glass) pogrom against the Jews in 1938, the same year his dictionary article on these terms was first published. In this light, it should hardly be surprising that Kuhn’s proposed solution for how these terms are related matches perfectly with the way the modern versions of these terms were used in his own time. That is, Kuhn’s explanation superimposes the idiom of prewar Nazi Germany on the ancient data. Unfortunately, Kuhn’s model has continued to be repeated and assumed—often without citation—throughout recent scholarship as a way to explain why otherwise seemingly synonymous terms are used differently within ancient literature. And that despite the fact that the data do not support his claims.
It’s not as though problems with Kuhn’s paradigm have gone unnoticed. For example, back in 1999, Maurice Casey cited the widespread acceptance of Kuhn’s problematic theory as a prime example of “the widespread and unfortunate habit of repeating the words of dead professors, regardless of truth or falsehood.” More recently, in 2014 Nathan Thiel observed that “the exceptions to an insider/outsider model are too numerous to maintain it without modification.” But recognizing the flaws of a dominant model is not enough. The difficult thing is to provide an alternative that better explains the data.
This is what I have aimed to do in my book, The Idea of Israel in Second Temple Judaism: A New Theory of People, Exile, and Israelite Identity. In this book, I propose a new model for how these terms were used in their ancient contexts, explaining how the various debates, discussions, and assumptions about the concept of Israel and Israelite identity in early Jewish sources attest to a surprising fact: “Israelite” and “Jew” were not in fact synonymous in the Second Temple period. Instead, Jews were understood—and consistently understood themselves—as a subset of Israel rather than as comprising the whole of Israel.
Perhaps the most significant piece of evidence for this fact is the continued presence of the people best known as Samaritans throughout the Second Temple period and beyond. Although they have often been treated in modern scholarship as a subset of Jews—a byproduct of the assumption that Israelites and Jews are synonymous—the Samaritans were decidedly not Jews, as a famous passage in the Gospel of John explains, “Jews do not have common dealings with Samaritans” (John 4:9). This statement would obviously be incoherent if Samaritans were Jews by virtue of being Israelites, and further evidence from the period confirms that the Samaritans claimed to be Israelites but not Jews, while Jews also did not regard Samaritans as Jews while also acknowledging (and often contesting) Samaritan claims of Israelite status and heritage. Even more surprisingly, the term “Israel” was not used to designate Judaea in the Persian or Graeco-Roman periods; instead, where that term is applied in Graeco-Roman sources, for example, it refers to those associated with worship at Mt. Gerizim—that is, the Samaritans.
Remarkably, even when Samaritans are not involved, similar distinctions between “Israelite” and “Jew” persist throughout early Jewish literature. On a closer examination of the evidence, it becomes evident that the paradigm of Israel established in the biblical narratives of pre-exilic Israel persists in Jewish literature throughout the Second Temple period. In that paradigm, the kingdoms of (northern) Israel and (southern) Judah together comprise the twelve-tribe totality of Israel. In this context, the term “Jew” refers specifically to those from the southern kingdom of Judah (that is, “Judahites”), while “Israelite” could refer to the whole people including both Jews and northern Israelites or, sometimes, to non-Jews (that is, non-Judahites) like Samaritans or other descendants of the northern kingdom of Israel.
Once this distinction is recognized, another thing quickly becomes evident: many Jews surprisingly continued to hope for and expect not only the liberation and independence of “the Jews” (that is, Judahites) but also continued to expect the miraculous return and restoration of northern (non-Jewish) Israelites from among the nations where they were scattered during and after the Assyrian invasions of the eighth century BCE. This expectation turns out to be central to a variety of ancient Jewish efforts to bring about “Israel’s” restoration—including the earliest Jesus movement.
My book examines these early debates and traces the development of the discourse concerning the concept of Israel throughout the Second Temple period. The book demonstrates that once we recognize the distinctions ancient authors make between “Israel” and “the Jews,” our eyes are opened to a broader diversity of claimants to the heritage of Israel. At that point, we can begin to understand many of the debates among various ancient groups competing to claim that Israelite heritage, including groups like the Dead Sea Scroll community, the earliest Christians, and the predecessors of rabbinic Judaism.
Argh! I was poking around trying to figure out how to rate this post (my first time rating) and I somehow clumsily managed to give it two stars. I meant to give it 5 stars!! Can you please correct this for me? I was very impressed. I’m not the best judge, but this (presumably) young man would seem to have a bright future in scholarship ahead of him.
It’s great to have more guest posts from Dr Staples! I already read your dissertation, which is great, by the way. Will there be anything new or substantially different in the two published volumes?
Hi Robertus, thank you for the kind words! There are indeed a number of differences from the dissertation version in the two volumes. In this first one, I expanded and restructured the discussion on the Samaritans and also sharpened the discussion of previous modern paradigms such as Kuhn’s. I also completely rewrote the chapter on Ezra-Nehemiah and the Maccabean literature, as I was dissatisfied with that section of the dissertation and think I’ve come to a much stronger reading of Ezra-Nehemiah in particular. Beyond that, I mostly restructured and updated other material while also aiming to make it significantly more readable than the dissertation.
About 65% of second volume will be completely new material. Whereas the section on Paul in the dissertation basically covered Rom 9 and 11 with a little preliminary discussion of Rom 2, the book version has additional chapters focused on 2 Cor 3/Rom 3–7, Rom 1, Rom 2, and Rom 10/Gal 3, plus more focused preliminary discussion of Paul’s perspective in general. Only the material on Rom 9 and Rom 11 will be the same, and each of those includes additional supplementary material that wasn’t in the dissertation versions of those chapters.
Thank you for a very interesting post. It made me think of this question, do scholars believe that the northern and southern kingdoms were ever united or is it believed that the two kingdoms were always separate?
There’s not a strong consensus on that question from what I can tell, partly because there is a range of views about the historicity of the biblical accounts. “Biblical maximalists” who believe that David and Solomon were actual historical kings from Judah who took control of the whole region (likely under Egyptian hegemony) obviously think they were united at some point. But there are “biblical minimalists” who question the existence of David and Solomon (or at least the idea that such figures were more than very local warlords).
What we do know is that by the 8th Century, the northern kingdom of Israel was significantly stronger than Judah, and there are hints in the biblical accounts that the southern kingdom was effectively (if not officially) a vassal state under northern power through some of this period. And once Samaria fell to the Assyrians, there’s strong evidence that the Jerusalemite kings attempted to unite the entire region under their rule as a unified “greater Israel.”
So the short answer is “it’s complicated and we’re not entirely sure.”
Thanks!
hmmm, I wonder how this bears on modern Israel. Should it have been called Judah? Or, should it be embracing non-Jews, in an effort to more faithfully recreate something more like ancient Israel?
I would think that a people group should be able to call their nation-state whatever they prefer. There were of course debates about what to call the new Jewish state at its inception, but “Israel” won out for several reasons. As for that last part, I think expecting modern nation-states to attempt to recreate ancient nation-states or other ancient entities is both unrealistic and dangerous. We can’t live in the past, and any attempt to do so is going to be filtered through modern interpretations of the past. Whose interpretations of the past should be given priority, and what happens when interpreters disagree about the past?
You may or may not know this, but the word,” Israel”, means those who struggle with God.
Very interesting post. Sorry to dumb down but the Kuhn reference reminded me of the misgivings of the German commander in Raiders of the Lost Ark to the need to perform an ancient Jewish religious ceremony in order to restore the power of the Ark. But the political context of Kuhn’s dictionary entry explains a lot. The subject of the ten lost tribes of Israel has spawned a number of modern works, mostly of the ‘popular history’ genre. Is it sensible to ask how late second temple Judaism writers would have viewed the Lost Tribes?
It’s very sensible, and it’s a significant part of the discussion in this book. The short answer is that there was no one view among late Second Temple period authors. A minority seem to have regarded the Ten Tribes as truly (and permanently) lost. Others believed they were “out there” somewhere to be restored sometime in the future (e.g., the book of Tobit, 4 Ezra, Josephus). Others thought that at least some Samaritans were part of that group but that there were others “out there” somewhere. And those are only a few of the options.
Thank you for the information on Karl G. Kuhn.
As for the terms “Israel” and “Jew” are they not generally used interchangeably in the Gospels? Nation vs. individual?
John 1:47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, “Here is truly an *Israelite*, in whom there is no deceit!”
John 4:9 So the Samaritan woman said to Him, “How is it that You, though You are a *Jew*, are asking me for a drink, though I am a Samaritan woman?” (For Jews do not associate with Samaritans.)
Here in the Gospel of John the terms *Israelite* (an individual of the nation, a descendant of Israel), and *Jew* are used to refer to a man of the same group- descendants of Jacob; worshipers of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who continued worshiping in Jerusalem.
“This kind of derogatory or contemptuous nuance of “Jew” was, however, a notable feature of the context in which Kuhn proposed his theory: prewar Nazi Germany.
“Kuhn himself was an early (1932) member of the Nazi party and was one of fifteen appointed members of the Nazi-established “Research Department for the Jewish Problem.”
This was hard to read, but necessary.
The “Jewish Problem”, for some, remains even today.
They’re definitely not treated as interchangeable in the NT. In those two examples from the Gospel of John, Nathanael is called an “Israelite” not as an ethnic marker but as an honorific—Jesus is not saying, “Congratulations, you are in fact Jewish!” Instead, he is saying that Nathanael—unlike many of the Jews around him—was *truly* an Israelite. This is an early marker in the Gospel of John about what “Israelite” in fact means, as the Gospel of John ultimately takes a sectarian view that not all Jews are in fact truly Israelites.
John 4:9, in contrast, is using “Jew” as a basic ethnic term representing someone from Judah versus the Samaritans (not from Judah, though claiming to be from Israel).
A good recent book that helps explain all this in the Gospel of John is Christopher Blumhofer’s The Gospel of John and the Future of Israel.
Appreciate your reply but I believe attempting a concrete division between the use and meaning of the terms Jew and Israel in the first century is like shooting at a moving target. Each NT book is written for a particular audience and at different times. Those differences, not to mention religion itself, add nuances, shades of meaning, to those terms.
Peter’s speech at Pentecost:
Act 2:5 Now there were **Jews** residing in Jerusalem, devout men from every nation under heaven.
Act 2:14 But Peter, taking his stand with the other eleven, raised his voice and declared to them: “Men of **Judea** and all you who live in Jerusalem, know this, and pay attention to my words.
Then after quoting the prophet Joel he continues:
Act 2:22 “Men of **Israel**, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a Man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just as you yourselves know—
Peter refers to the **Jews** gathered to hear him as **Men of Judea** AND **Men of Israel.**
So it appears that at least for Peter the Jews of Judea were men of Israel…
Yes, Jews are Israelites. But not all Israelites are Jews. That’s the difference. One is a subset of the other. And that holds true not only in the NT but in other early Jewish literature from the Second Temple period with remarkable consistency.
Fascinating post Jason:
But I wonder if you might unpack a bit, your statement:
“Jews also did not regard Samaritans as Jews while also acknowledging (and often contesting) Samaritan claims of Israelite status and heritage.”
Can you explain further what is involved in “acknowledging (and often contesting)”, perhaps with some illustrative examples from Second Temple period writings? To me, ‘contesting’ and ‘acknowledging’ are not activities usually done together, but rather in opposition to one another.
So, when you observe that many Jews in this period,”continued to expect the miraculous return and restoration of northern (non-Jewish) Israelites from among the nations”; for how many Jews did this expectation extend to the restoration of Samaritans to full Israelite status? Again, it might be helpful to quote examples from writings of the period.
My own understanding before now had been that Samaritans were rejected absolutely – either as Jews or Israelites; and that this rejection was fully mutual. For instance in the fragment 4Q372 “.. they made for themselves a high place on an elevated mountain to excite the Jealousy of Israel”. For this writer, it would seem, the restoration of ‘Joseph’ would require the expulsion of the Samaritans.
Hi Tom, I’ve got a variety of examples dealing with this question in the book. You’re right that “acknowledging” and “contesting” are in opposition—and that’s exactly what we find, with some Jews recognizing and approving Samaritan claims of Israelite heritage and others rejecting them entirely. Even in the first few centuries of the Rabbinic era, there are differences of opinion on whether Samaritans should be considered Israelites or not.
4Q372 1 is especially hostile to the Samaritans and represents a strong position on the “contesting/rejecting” side. But someone like Jesus seems to have been closer to the other position.
Tangentially related: Professor Alec Ryrie gives an excellent Gresham College lecture — available at https://www.gresham.ac.uk/lectures-and-events/two-kingdoms-in-the-third-reich — about the way German Protestant churches dealt with the rise of the Nazis, including the ethnicized definition of “Jew”. (There were religious Lutherans who were ethnically Jewish, for instance, which caused difficulties for Lutherans who were generally happy to support anti-Semitic policies, but who also believed that a Christian’s sins had been washed away.) Some church leaders even created a “Dejudaized Bible”, with all Jewish elements removed, to aid Christians who wanted to be good Nazis. It’s awful stuff, but it’s a great lecture.
Interesting piece, but I have a non related question for Mr. Ehrman. It’s about the pre pauline creed in Romans 1:3-4. The Greek text says “του ὁρισθέντος Υιού του Θεού”. “ὁρισθέντος” is a part participle in passive voice of the verb “ὁρίζω” which -by any ancient Greek vocabulary I could get my hands on- means “define, appoint, set a boundary or set apart and decide”. In modern Greek, when we say “ορίζω” we mean “define”. And it is related to “όριο” which means “boundary or limit”.
So, after all this mini but burdensome lecture on Greek language, I wanted to ask something crucial to the interpretation of the verse. Because in virtually every Greek copy of the New Testament I have looked, “ὁρισθέντος” is translated (in modern Greek, for us lazy Greeks who are too bored to actually read the original ancient Greek 🤣) as “αποδείχθηκε” (=proved). And I wanted to ask you if “proved” is a kind of forgery, because I think “proved” conveys a whole different meaning than the “defined/appointed” translation which I think is more correct with regard to the original. And, of course, it’s a quite important verse, since it encapsulates a whole different Christology.
I don’t know modern Greek but ὁρίζω in this context appears to mean something stronger than “designated” (as sometimes translated), more like “appointed,” i.e., as when one establishes a boundary; it is “set up.” IT looks like the modern Greek is moving more toward “designated,” or “demonstrated.” As you know, in the koine, δείκνυμι means something like “shown” and that appears to be how the modern Greek translators are taking the word. It’s a key matter. Is Paul saying that CHrist was already the Son of GOd before this and that hte resurrectdion “showed/proved” it? Or is he saying that he was not the SOn of GOd yet but was “made/established” as the Son of God by the resurrection? THere are strong arguments for the latter. It is often thought, by the way, that Paul added the words “in power” in order to show taht even though he agreed with the creed he was quoting he wanted to provide more nuance because he himself did think CHrist was already the Son of GOd before; the resurrection made him the son of GOd IN POWER.
I know, Mr. Ehrman, I was just reading your detailed analysis on this passage in HJBG last night – hence the reason I commented! It’s interesting what you mention about the “in power”.
As far as how they translate ”ὁρισθέντος” is concerned, however, “demonstrated” is closer to what they mean. My copy has “αποδείχτηκε” (“proved”) as a translation: but probably both miss something crucial – and I suspect they miss it intentionally. Because it *is* a huge deal how you translate this particular word as you say. If it is ”appointed”, then I think it’s pretty clear he’s accepting the belief that Jesus was made Son of God at his resurrection. But if it is “demonstrated” or “proved”, as in my edition, then it may well be argued that Paul maintains that Jesus was always the Son of God and that was ‘proved’ by his resurrection!
This issue is so fascinating, by the way, that it’s worth it for someone to buy your book only to read this! I was so awestruck by this analysis last night! The breaking down of the creed into 2 parts and all that – just amazing stuff! Lastly, “ορίζω” in modern Greek means “define”.
I’m also interested to hear Bart’s response on this, but I’ll put in my penny as well (I don’t make enough to give a full two cents). In brief, I think the modern Greek version is basically getting the gist of what Paul is arguing right, though some of the nuance is lost. In my second volume, I argue that Paul understands the resurrection as the proof of Jesus’ status as ὁ δικαίος, “the just one” sent to redeem Israel (cf. Hab 2:4), with Rom 1:3–4 being an illustration of that belief right at the beginning of the letter. This view is also evident in several places in Acts (esp. 17:31). But Paul also understands the resurrection as essentially the appointment of Jesus as the heavenly deliverer, a nuance that the modern translation doesn’t get across. So it’s not a bad translation, but some meaning is lost.
Thank you very much for your interesting take! You must had a great teacher! 😂 Although, honestly, I find it difficult to understand the interconnection between this passage, being just, being appointed the Son of God and being the heavenly deliverer. Perhaps I’ll get it when I read your work.
As with pretty much everything in Paul, it’s based on particular readings of multiple biblical texts, and without recognizing that foundation it gets really convoluted.
In brief, Habakkuk 2:4 promises that “the just one will live.” The future tense “will live” was interpreted by some in the Second Temple period as a promise of eternal life (Preston Sprinkle’s book on the parallel “he will live” in Lev 18:5b convincingly demonstrates this). From there, all one needs to do is understand “the just one” as referring to a specific individual deliverer figure (there’s evidence of this in early Judaism and the New Testament), and then this verse is understood as a promise of eternal life to a specific “just one.” Jesus’ resurrection therefore shows that he was “the just one” to whom this promise was made. It’s several steps, and each step requires specific interpretations of that verse in the context of several others, but it’s fully coherent and plausibly explains why Paul does what he does in that passage.
Did the people living in Galilee in Jesus’s day think of themselves as Jews or Israelites or both? What did the “real” Jews in Jerusalem think of them?
Hi, fishician. This is a debated question among scholars. Richard Horsley is probably in the minority in stressing the northern identify of the Galileans as Israelites who were never completely expelled by the Assyrians in the 8th c BCE. I think the majority view among scholars, on the contrary, emphasizes the role of the Hasmoneans in Judaizing Galilee and other areas or peoples (Idumea, Iturea). Personally, I’ve always been attracted to Horsley’s view.
I don’t think there’s much evidence to support Horsley’s contention, and everything that survives refers to the residents of Galilee during and after the Hasmonean Period as Jews. I do think it’s highly probable that there were at least some persons there who descended in some fashion from northern Israelites, but by the first century CE, there’s no evidence of persons identifying themselves as from other (non-Jewish) tribes in Galilee. Galileans were Jews.
Now, of course, Jews also understood themselves as Israelites, though not all Israelites were Jews, much like New Yorkers are Americans but not all Americans are New Yorkers.
Absolutely fascinating. I have a number of thoughts but no time now to develop them. Good work indeed.
I believe the Samaritans are probably the remnant of the northern kingdom of Israel who were not swept up in the Assyrian displacement after 721 BCE. Their opposition to the Babylonian returnees getting money to rebuild the temple encouraged the idea of separation.
I wasn’t aware of Kuhn or of the degree to which his Nazi disinformation had infected subsequent scholarship!
Are you familiar with Shaye Cohen’s book, _The Beginnings of Jewishness_? He has a long section on the distinction between “Israelites” and “Jews.” He argues that we shouldn’t use “Jew” for these people prior to around 200 BCE.
Yes, I engage with Cohen in much of this book. For what it’s worth, I completely disagree with his assessment that “Jew” should not be used for earlier materials for two reasons. First, I think the distinction between “religious” and “ethno-geographic” senses is anachronistic, since they didn’t make such distinctions in antiquity (what we call “religious” was part of ethno-culture) and only had one term (Ioudaios) to cover all of it. Second, even today, “Jew” is not just a religious term but an ethnic one, so the idea that we shouldn’t use “Jew” due to its religious implications falls flat even when considering its modern usage.
The Roman world made little or no distinction between religion and ethnicity, no question. Fredriksen makes the point that a non-Jewish believer in Jesus was held to disrespect his ancestors by refusing to worship the gods his ancestors had worshiped. So I see your point about Cohen, though I suggest he was trying to establish a vocabulary to handle people of different ethnicity who accepted Yahweh and underwent circumcision. I don’t see any way to do that that isn’t going to trigger some scholarly controversy.
In my own struggles to make this clear without getting bogged down among dancing angels on a pin, I found it simpler to generally use “Israelites” for the ethnic group(s) that made up the kingdoms of Israel and Judah and during the Babylonian exile, and “Jews” for those people, regardless of where they lived and (for the most part) regardless of their actual ethnicity, who believed in Yahweh from the time of Cyrus onward. More or less.
A last thought: A “Jew” can (in theory) escape the prejudice of “anti-Judaism” by converting to Christianity or Islam. He cannot escape “anti-Semitism” that way.
Yes, there’s not an easy way to deal with any of this without some degree of controversy. But the problem with using “Jews” for those derived from the kingdom of Israel after the Babylonian exile is that they weren’t in fact Jews, which is a term that refers to those from Judah. The Samaritans, for example, were worshipers of YHWH who were not “Jews.” For such persons, another option is “Yahwists,” but to use “Jew” is misleading, especially since they did not regard themselves as Jews, nor were they regarded as such by Jews or outsiders.
Thank you Jason for a very thought-provoking and insightful post.
My question is – will the term ‘Israel’ encompass different brackets depending on which time in history one decides to look at? Israel prior to the split of the Kingdom referred to all 12 tribes and it appears it narrows in on only the Northern Kingdom (10 tribes) after the split. Will reference to Israel in both instances mean the same thing?
Yes, that’s part of what makes “Israel” such a difficult term. It has different meanings in different times and contexts. But that’s true of all language! Words don’t have a single meaning that persists through all time and space—people use words to mean different things in different contexts.
Thank you for a great post, Jason!
For me, biblical stories as a whole, and for some schriptures can easily be understood symbolically as a spiritual process or spiritually patterns. Several Jewish and Christian views relates to such concepts, which in its essences point to that God and Heaven can be found within.
In my view, the tragedy, with capital letters, is that we have made cognetive structure where all humans, human races/groups, and even deities as completely external and alienated, and make our deities as partly extra terrestrial. History has shown that we as a spieces, when we awake our “beasts”/destructive earthly foreces easily can cultivate hate in all such gaps, where we devide. Jews has been a victim to such tragedies for thousands of years.
For me, the Hebrew Bible, and also parts of the NT is stories within, on a symbolic level. In thiat context, Israel has been used different than an external state in an external wold. For me there are a lot of references to such, both in biblical texts and also indications in,,,,,yes,,, even indicated in for example the Hymn of the Pearl.
To mention a few examples:
Beside my assumed symbolic meaning in some of the Hebrew texts, there are more esoteric views, like the later Kabbalistic views like talking about “Israel” as Yshr’El which can be be understood as “direct to God” from Hebrew. The Kabbalists think of the Israel as a desire from our fragmented soul which still remains and is a spark which will evolves back to its Creator (reunion).
The earlier Christian branch(es), the gnostic versjon, namely the 4th century “On the origin of the world” which is full of symbolic references where it says “ Israel – which is, “the man that sees God”; seems to indicate symbolic desire, seeking toward God.
Other Christian esoteric terms has been “the seeker”, “the seeker of truth”, “the seeker of God”
Then, from such perspective, Israel applies to everybody and its inner meaning is spiritual which also gives Genesis 49:10 a proper meaning.
+1! Too bad he didn’t respond, though.
It’s interesting to me how insistent some of the early Christian were that all 12 tribes would be reunited, despite the fact that most of the tribes were lost. Paul talks about all Israel being restored, and Jesus is said to have appointed his 12 apostles to lead the 12 tribes — none of that makes sense if nine of the tribes were permanently lost.
More oddly, the Letter of Aristeas (written a century or two before Paul) describes 72 Jewish scholars recruited to translate the Septuagint… six from each of the Twelve Tribes of Israel. Although a legendary account, it was believed by many Jews around Jesus’s time. But how could you find scholars from tribes that had been lost many centuries earlier? If Jews and early Christians found the account credible, did they believe that all 12 tribes existed and were locatable? If so, the task of uniting the 12 tribes would seem far more doable.
Great question. The short answer is that many Jews did not believe that the northern tribes were permanently lost. Many Jews from this period expected a remnant from those tribes to be restored when God finally set things right, and that’s almost certainly what Jesus expected.
As for the Letter of Aristeas, that feature is one of the “fairy tale” features of the story, which is hardly aiming to give a matter-of-fact history of the events surrounding the translation of the Septuagint. Moreover, Sandra Gambetti has recently (2020) argued that the Letter of Aristeas is engaging with anti-Samaritan sentiments in Alexandria, which may help account for the tribal language in the work. But it’s also worth noting that the tribes are not actually named in Aristeas, something that again calls attention to the problems any Jew alive in the period would have recognized with respect to elders from each of the twelve tribes.
I came across the thesis, somewhere, that the northern tribes were not lost at all, but only the elites of those tribes, the literate ones and the ones who had valuable skills and the potential leaders, since it would have been counterproductive and difficult in the extreme to effectively depopulate the area. Lacking those elites, the northern tribes simply intermarried among themselves and the southern population. Plausible?
I think the idea is that the tribes were “lost” in the sense that their bloodlines were more or less destroyed by all the intermarrying, so there was no longer any close tribal identity.
So, in order to “restore” these tribes, one would have to unsort the DNA…? Or recreate them from scratch in original condition? That becomes problematic. What else would restoration mean?
That’s part of the discussion among many Jews of this period, as there come to be a variety of proposed solutions to exactly that problem. Some believed that the “real” northern Israelites to be restored are “out there” in exile somewhere unknown with unadulterated bloodlines and properly observing Torah, just waiting on restoration. Others (a minority it seems) appear to have accepted or at least considered the Samaritans as viable Israelites, if only they would acknowledge Jerusalem’s sovereignty and only worship/sacrifice there. The apostle Paul and other early Jewish Christians seem to have believed that since much of northern Israel had intermarried among the nations and was no longer ethnically distinct from the nations, God’s method of restoration would be to incorporate people from the nations in order to restore Israel essentially by proxy. That last part is essentially the thesis of my second book, which goes in depth on how Paul answers this question.
It’s not only plausible but probable at least in the central area of Samaria (the territory of Ephraim and Manasseh). The archaeological record shows mostly cultural continuity through the ninth, eighth, and seventh centuries, which suggests that the population of the region was mostly continuous through that period. And as you say, it was typically counterproductive to entirely depopulate a region, so the usual strategy was to remove the elites and anyone the Assyrians regarded of consequence and then to replace those people with outsiders who would be more inclined to obey Assyrian imperial dictates.
But the situation is significantly more complex because there wasn’t just one exile or deportation—there were multiple throughout this period. The eighth century alone featured multiple deportations by the Assyrians. There was at least one under Tiglath-Pileser III in the 730s, which impacted primarily Syria (the kingdom of Damascus) and the northernmost regions of Israel, including the Galilee and areas roughly parallel to it. Some of those areas show significant depopulation in the eighth-century—archaeological surveys have shown no evidence of significant occupation of any sort in Lower Galilee in the seventh century, for example. So in certain cases and certain parts of the northern kingdom, the deportation seems to have been quite extreme.
With Samaria, on the other hand, the city seems to have remained mostly intact, and much of the population in the region around it seems to have been left in place. But one Jewish polemical position was that the outsiders brought in by Assyria ultimately intermarried into that population, effectively adulterating it as legitimately “Israelite,” while the “real” Israelites had kept their lineages unadulterated in exile and would be restored at some point (that’s the view of 4Q372 1 in the Dead Sea Scrolls, for example, and was probably the view of someone like Nehemiah).
So the short answer is that it’s complicated and that some tribes seem to have survived more intact than others. Reuben, which had its land in the Transjordan region, seems to have been pretty much entirely absent relatively early in the process, while remnants of some other tribes seem to have persisted. And then you have the question of intermarriage between Judah and other tribal groups that surely happened, especially in the wake of the eighth century catastrophes, effectively resulting in the assimilation of non-Jewish Israelites with the southern population, with the result that they essentially become Jews.
“Deutsche Wissenschaft im Kampf gegen das Weltjudentum!”
Even Hebrew and Greek grammatical works of this era are sometimes imbued with Aryan ideological assumptions. It is shocking to come across these ideas.
Dr Staples,
Around the time of Jesus, was the word ‘Hebrew’ (predicated of a person rather than a language) a synonym for ‘Israelite’ or ‘Jew’, or did it have a meaning that overlaps with both but identical to neither?
Yes, I cover that in the book. Short answer is that the best evidence shows that by the late Second Temple period, “Hebrew” had come to designate people who spoke “Hebrew” (which may have been what we call Hebrew or it might have been Aramaic).
The latter. It seems to have designated someone who spoke “Hebrew” (though there’s some debate as to whether that’s what we would call Hebrew today or Aramaic).
Jason, do you have any thoughts about the use of “Hebrews” as opposed to “Jews” or “Israel”?
[Also, you should mention to your publisher that Amazon’s “Add to list” option is present for the Kindle edition but missing for the hardcover. They should ask Amazon to fix that.]
Yes, I cover that in the book. Short answer is that the best evidence shows that by the late Second Temple period, “Hebrew” had come to designate people who spoke “Hebrew” (which may have been what we call Hebrew or it might have been Aramaic). In earlier periods, it’s a different story, but that’s outside the purview of the book.
And thanks for the heads-up on the “Add to list” option.
Synagogue of Satan
Question for Jason/Bart:
What about those “who say that they are Jews and are not, but are a synagogue of Satan” in Rev 2:9 and 3:9 ?
That passage puzzles me a lot but no interpretation convinced me, “a synagogue of Satan” ! very very strong words.
The same “group” was present in Smyrna and Philadelphia , who were those ‘liars’ ??
We can’t be certain about who this passage has in mind, but the general consensus is that this passage is talking about Jews who have chosen not to follow Jesus, effectively suggesting that their opposition to Jesus invalidates their Jewishness. Well-measured discussions of that view and other options can be found in Adela Yarbro Collins’ article, “Vilification and Self-Definition in the Book of Revelation.”
But if they “opposed” Jesus, why were they among the christian churches?
“I will make them come and fall down at your feet and acknowledge that I have loved you”
They won’t be expelled , rather they would be forced to accept the authority ( fall down at your feet) of the church ”angel” , whoever this leader was. And this because Jesus himself supported the “angel” (acknowledge that I have loved you), so it’s hard to think in jews that “opposed” Jesus. Rather it appears that they were christians that, claiming they were Jews ,opposed the local leader.
To the Ephesus “angel” John also said “ you have tested those who claim to be apostles but are not”, again a false claim. Where did those “false” apostles come from?
They had to be Jews, perhaps as late as John’s times the asian churches were still visited by strangers claiming they were “apostles” coming from Palestine as in Ephesus or claiming they were just jews as in Smyrna/ Philadelphia although they weren’t.
Hi Jason,
Good job! Really enjoyed reading…I’m old and my memory not what it used to be but if I recall correctly Christine Hayes at Yale briefly touched on some of the differences between the terms ancient Israelites and Jews in her popular lecture series on the Hebrew Bible avail for free from Yale (I watched it on YouTube awhile back). It was probably in the first lecture or two of the series and like you are here, pointing out they are not always interchangeable.
Looking forward to reading more from you and getting your book when it comes out.
Thank you,
Steve Clark
Would love to see you write a few more articles for this blog drawn from ideas in your book(s). I’ve just ordered your first one.
Hi Jason,
Where can we get your book?
You will be able to get it online from Cambridge University Press (e.g., on Amazon)
Thanks for this post and your most helpful comments throughout Jason. As you know I really love your work on this topic and ordered your book the day I heard it was out–having read your dissertation some time back. This is such an important topic–changes everything. I will be blogging and reviewing your book. I hope it has the widest circulation.
Thanks, James! I’m so grateful for your feedback and support!
I am at the beach this week and forgot to bring the book so not sure if you get into the later Rabbinic discussions. I have found Rabbi Rafael Eisenberg, A Matter of Return (Jerusalem: Feldheim, 1980) very helpful. As you know, the major rabbinic discussion is found in the b. Sanhedrin 110b based on the assertion that “the Ten Tribes will not return” The premise of that discussion, that these tribes are “lost” or in Exile, the pertinent question was whether they would ever return, given their extreme state of apostasy. Rabbi Akiba maintained they would not return, while Rabbi Eleizer held that they would. Both interpretations are based on different interpretations of Biblical prophecy, and whether the promises of restoration were conditional or unconditional. The halachah was that the Ten Tribes would return (Tosefta Sanhedrin 13). I have listened to rabbis in Jerusalem at Aish HaTorah debating this to this day.
I only briefly got into the Rabbinic discussions; I initially had a separate excursus/appendix on it, but based on peer review reports, I cut that part of the book. I do bring that section into the discussion in the follow-up book on Paul, however.
This question is for Dr. Ehrman. I was reading today a New York Times guest column by Matthew Walther, and he made a critical comment about Black Lives Matter because, according to him, the movement has been critical of the nuclear family in American life, and this stands in opposition to Catholic social teaching. In my Catholic boyhood, the Holy Family was always held up as a model of the nuclear family. I’m wondering how this squares historically. For a first-century Palestinian Jew like Jesus, from the peasant class, what would have been the normative family unit? And how does this compare or contrast with the modern conception of the nuclear family? Thank you.
Most people in Jesus’ environment (rural palestine) would have had extended families as the unit — children, parents, grandparents. THe striking thing about the early Gospels is that JEsus appears to reject the demands of the nuclear family, rejecting his mother and brothers, e.g., in preference to his followers (Mark 3). It’s not clear that he would have insisted on what we now call “family values.” THe urgency of the moment may have affected his views, as they did for Paul (1 Cor. 7).
Dr. Ehrman, Dr. Staples,
In the future, would either one of you consider composing an essay on Demonic Possession, perhaps from a Roman Catholic/Eastern/Oriental Orthodox perspective ? This would be awesome to have on the blog!
I”m afraid that’s not ; after about the fourht century, my expert knowledge drops off the table.
Dr. Staples,
Congratulations on the publication of your book, which looks fascinating: I am looking forward to delving into it.
I would love to hear your thoughts on my own working assumptions and practices concerning the difference between “Israel” and the “Jews”. I use “Israel” or “children of Israel” to refer to the descendants of the patriarch Jacob, whereas I use “Jew” to refer to those who returned to the land of Judah after the Babylonian exile and their descendants (and “Judaism” covers all the religious traditions developed by these returnees and their descendants).
Do you think my use of these terms fits with the Second Temple period usage you desbribe in your book?
Thank you!
Omar
Hi Omar, apologies for the delayed response. That’s pretty close to how those terms are used in the Second Temple period, yes, though of course with some variation and nuance.
Hi Jason,
When it comes to the distinction between “Israelite” and “Jew”, do you see the distinction being made in rabbinic literature, and if so, how long after the Second Temple Period do you find the distinction being made in these writings?
Thanks!
Omar
Yes, there’s still recognition of the distinction in Rabbinic literature (for example, there’s a discussion in the Talmud about Mordecai being identified in Esther as both a “Jew” and from the tribe of Benjamin), Sanhedrin 110 in particular involves significant discussion of the ten tribes, and there are disagreements for centuries about how the Israelite claims of the Samaritans should be handled.
I remembered recently that some years ago a number of Orthodox/Ultra-Orthodox Rabbis in Israel were questioning what it means to be a Jew. They were suggesting, I believe, that most of the holocaust victims were not, in fact, “real” Jews, and they were arguing that not many Israelis were in fact “real” Jews. The discussion then seemed to be curtailed by the eruption of an intifada. I don’t know what criteria they were using, and I haven’t seen much discussion since then. Do you remember this? It would have been back in the late nineties, I believe.
I don’t recall that specific conversation, no. But since the early days of Zionism it has always been a question, what is a “Jew.” (The idea that a Jew must be born to a Jewish woman was because no one, technically speaking, could know the [Jewish] identity of his or her father)
Great post! I always wondered what the use of the word “Jew” in the Bible and in modern times. I did always have the idea that the Jews were specific to the Kingdom (or tribe) of Judah, while Israel was a larger cultural group. What confuses me is the idea that the Northern kingdom was supposed to be the Kingdom of Israel and composed of all the tribes except for Judah. I have been learning so much about the historical Bible while listening to Audible books of Dr. Ehrman and I know there is much more to these issues than is obvious. But I’m so glad to be able to somewhat follow the conversation now!
I thought it appropriate to post this comment on one of Jason Staples’ past guest posts.
I have signed up for the 2024 NINT conference. I’m a good little Australian who will be fast asleep when it, but I’m looking forward to the recordings. My blog suscription is due for renewal before the conference date, and I am inclined to let it expire — I’ve been on the blog for four years and learned a lot, but it feels like enough. However, if the conference is as thought-provoking as I hope, I’ll have a burning desire to give feedback somehow.
Tonight I watched James Tabor’s interview of Staples on Youtube, and I wrote a comment there describing my preliminary thoughts on Staples’ stated topic, as described at the end of that video. To summarise, I said that it’s broadly similar to a view of Paul that is already commonplace in the church, but I am expecting some original twists and embellishments.