I have been reposting a thread from years ago about whether Peter and Cephas, almost universally “known” to be the same person (Peter is his Greek name; Cephas is the Aramaic equivalent) may in fact have been two different people with the same name. I pulled all this from an article I wrote over back when I was young and foolish: “Cephas and Peter,” Journal of Biblical Literature, 109 (1990) pp. 463-74. It stirred up some controversy and some occasional animosity among colleagues. But most, when they’d see me at a conference, would ask: “Were you serious?”
Ha! I would usually tell them I was serious, but that at the end of the day I’m not 100% sure either way. And that’s still true. But I make the best argument I can in the piece. Here’s a bit more of it, a bit in the weeds, but with some of the more boringly academic elements removed.
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The evidence of Paul (that they were two different people) has not been exhausted by this consideration of Gal 2:7-9. There remain the other references to Cephas in Paul’s letters, references that provide other points of interest. Indeed what is striking is that in virtually every instance, Paul’s references to Cephas contain something that is difficult to explain if in fact he meant “Peter,” Jesus’ disciple, the one who had received the apostolate to “the circumcised” (Gal 2:8) just as Paul received that to the uncircumcised.
In some respects the reference in 1 Cor 15.5 is the most interesting.
In reciting the tradition he had received concerning the death and resurrection of Jesus, Paul names Cephas as the first to have witnessed Jesus raised from the dead. Here is the entire passage (1 Cor. 15:3-8):
3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the scriptures, 4 that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the scriptures, 5 and that he appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. 6 Then he appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom are still alive, though some have fallen asleep. 7 Then he appeared to James, then to all the apostles. 8 Last of all, as to one untimely born, he appeared also to me.

Scholars have long noted the highly structured character of this fragment, and concluded that it represents an early creedal formula. While there is some dispute concerning the extent of the creed itself, i.e. whether it ends at v. 5 or continues on through v. 7, most scholars agree that at least in Paul’s formulation of the tradition there appears to be an intentional parallelism between vv. 5-6 on the one hand and vv. 7-8 on the other, so that there are in effect two lists of witnesses to the resurrection. Furthermore, there seems to be an intentional correlation of function between the two lists, so that each member of the first appears to be construed as a functional equivalent to its parallel in the second. Leaving aside the precise nature of the first set of parallels, since that itself is our overarching concern here, it can at least be noted that each list begins with an individual to whom Jesus appeared: Cephas (v. 5) and James (v. 7).
The lists continue with references to groups of Jesus’ followers, groups indeed that were instrumental in the establishment of the Christian church: “the Twelve” in v. 5 and “all the apostles” in v. 7 (two groups with considerable overlap, of course, but by no means identical). The lists conclude with witnesses that are perhaps to be construed as guarantors of the tradition: the five hundred believers, whom, Paul observes, are for the most part still alive, suggesting perhaps that they can still testify to what they have seen (v. 6), and Paul, who is doing just that (v. 8).
Given these clear parallels between the corresponding members of the two lists, what significance can be attached to their respective first members, Cephas and James? Perhaps these two are singled out because of their importance in establishing the church in Jerusalem. But in that case one wonders why John, the other “pillar” of the church, is not also mentioned. More commonly it is suggested that they are similar in playing a leadership role among the groups mentioned subsequently, “Cephas” (i.e. Peter, in this view) among the Twelve, and “James” among the apostles.
This view has a good deal to be said for it, but is made difficult by Paul’s emphasis in the second list that the resurrected Christ appeared to “all” the apostles (v. 7). Is James really the leader of all the apostles? He certainly was not acknowledged as a leader by Paul at a later date nor, apparently, by Barnabas, earlier. Perhaps then, as is more likely, he is being construed as a leader among the original apostles in Jerusalem. But if that is the point the parallel no longer exists — for in fact it was Peter, not James, who led the original group of apostles.
Thus it may be that Paul has construed the parallel between Cephas and James in a different way altogether. Here it should be observed that this James is decidedly not one of Jesus’ twelve disciples, but is, presumably, Jesus’ brother, whose conversion to faith and whose position of authority in the church were secured not on the basis of a personal association with Jesus while alive, but by a personal audience with Jesus after his death. Could it not be that, given the parallel nature of the two lists, Cephas should be construed similarly, namely, as one who was not Jesus’ earthly disciple but who was thought to have had a personal revelation of Jesus and was, as a result, converted? It may be significant, in this connection, that Paul is a third individual named in this list, another unbeliever who was granted a personal visitation from Jesus, resulting in his leadership role in the Christian community.
One other feature of this passage merits careful consideration. There would be no reason to suspect that James is to be excluded from membership in the group of the apostles mentioned subsequently. Quite to the contrary, since the second list states that Jesus appeared to James and then to all the apostles, there is every good reason to assume that James is one member of this larger group. What about Cephas in the first list? Strikingly, the wording is different here, so that Jesus is not said to appear to all the Twelve, after he had already appeared to one of them. Rather, he “appeared to Cephas and then to the Twelve.” Perhaps given the blinders we normally wear when reading a text like this, we have overlooked that there is nothing here to indicate that Cephas is being construed as an individual member of the group mentioned subsequently. It can at least be stated with some confidence that anyone without any previous knowledge of the matter might well be led to suppose that James was one of the apostles, without at all being led to suspect that Cephas was one of the Twelve.
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Hi Dr. Ehrman! Off topic but I’m hoping you can respond. I believe I have heard you argue that the gospel of John is the first time that Jesus is specifically identified as God. If I remember correctly, you have said it is interesting that none of our earliest sources state this thus suggesting this was a progression. I was wondering about Paul’s letters. I don’t believe he explicitly states it but he certainly sees Jesus as something more than a regular man. In your analysis, how do you see this? Did Paul see Jesus as God or something else? Thanks!
Ah, no that’s not quite what I’ve said. I’ve never said no one before John thought Jesus was God. I’ve said that Jesus never CALLS HIMSELF God in any of the earlier Gospels or their sources, prior to John. Paul certainly thought that Jesus was a divine being. (But he never indicates Jesus himself said so; John, writing near the end of the first century, is the first to do so)
Have you heard of Moralistic Therapeutic Deism?
The term was coined by sociologists studying religious beliefs of American teenagers in the early 2000s and is said to have infiltrated major Christian denominations since then.
It consists of: (1) a creator God; (2) being a good , moral person; (3) a goal of being happy and having self-esteem; (4) a non-intervening God except in times of special need; (5) heaven for those who are good.
It seems to be loosely associated with Christianity.
I think I might join – except that there’s no organization – which might be a good thing.
Nope. But does sound like deism….
The only organization I can think of that might be close is the Universal Life Church.
Unitarianism? Masonry? Natural Religion?
I would argue that Jesus’ brothers, James, Jude (Judas Thomas), and Simon were all one of the 12 disciples BEFORE Jesus’ death! Just as “Cephas” (Peter) was. And that the term “The Twelve” was a group name similar to the way the “BigTen” is used today (with it’s 18 members).
I understand that your agnostic atheism is based on the problem of evil. For many atheists, it seems like the basic reason for non-belief is lack of good, convincing evidence of God, ie, theists have the burden of proof.
Do you think there is some evidence for God’s existence but that the evidence against it, ie, the problem of evil, is decisive? If you think there is some evidence can you briefly indicate what that is?
I’m not sure I’d say there is “evidence” for God, since usually when we talk about evidence for the proof of the existence of something we mean empirical evidence that can be demonstrated on scientific grounds, and if God exists, he is not the sort of thing that would be subject to that kind of demonstration, by definition (both science and history are restricted in whta they can do, just by the nature of what that is)
In 1 Cor. 15:3-8, Paul twice says “in accordance with the scriptures.”
What scriptures is he talking about?
Is he misinterpreting passages in the OT as continues to be done today?
It is better translated “in accordance with the Scriptures.” So he is saying tht Jesus’s death and resurrection fulfilled prophecy.
he appeared to Cephas,
then to the twelve
Then to more than five hundred brethren
Then to James
then to all the apostles
Is this the pre-Paul creed? Then Paul added himself?
The thought is Cephas was not part of the twelve but Peter was?
James became an apostle and the appearance was to him before the apostles before him?
John would be in the twelve list and apostle list?
THere are debates about how much of 1 Cor. 15:3-8 is from a “creed” Paul inherited. Certainly not the ending, where he refers to his own experience. Most experts appear to think (I think) that it ended, either with Cephas and that Paul added the rest of it himself.
Might Paul have meant, “appeared to Cephas and then to all the (rest of the) Twelve.” ?
possibly — but he doesn’t say it that way, in contrast to how he mentions “the apostles” in relation to James in v. 7.
Hey Bart. If your theory is correct, then Cephas must have been a pretty important character in the early Christian Church. If not Peter, then who do you think he was?
Some guy named Cephas. 🙂 Who became a leader of the church in Jerusalem. I’ll say a few words about that in another post.
So here’s my take. I understand the reasons for them as separate individuals, but I still think they’re the same person. It seems rather odd and coincidental if two prominent characters in early Christianity had the same rare nickname.
I suspect he was known more as Cephas, but Paul uses the alternate “Peter” twice in Galatians 2:7-8 as a play on words. Both times that Πέτρος is mentioned, it’s in close connection with περιτομῆς (circumcision). I don’t think that’s accidental. I think Paul is nudging Cephas jokingly, that even his nickname (Πέτρος) is almost like circumcision (περιτομῆς)! It’s got all the same letters in Greek!
And then Mark needs to use “Peter” instead of “Cephas” because Mark makes a play on words in the Parable of the Soils (Mark 4:3-8), specifically with the “rocky” soil (πετρῶδες in Mk 4:5). As Mary Ann Tolbert argued, that parable is the interpretive key for the characters in Mark’s narrative. We might expect Peter and the disciples to be the good soil, but actually they’re the “rocky” ground with no root and fall away (Mk 4:16-17). So Mark consistently uses Peter instead of Cephas, as then do Matthew, Luke, and John.
Just my 2c.
Whoa! περιτομης! Never heard that idea before!
Well, what puzzles me is that if Peter and Cephas are the same person, why in Galatians does Paul shift from Cephas to Peter to Cephas, and Gal 2:7-8 are the only two mentions of “Peter” in all of Paul’s writings. Peter in Gal 2:7-8 is not textually corrupt. So it looks like Paul intentionally switched to Peter twice in those verses, and then back to Cephas. In scriptio continua, the lettering look like this:
ΠΕΤΡΟCΤΗC
ΠΕΡΙΤΟΜHC
ΠΕΤΡΩΕΙCΑΠΟ
CΤΟΛΗΝΤΗC
ΠΕΡΙΤΟΜΗC
That first usage in Gal 2:7 looks so remarkably similar.
If Peter took over the leadership role that Jesus had then he would be a teacher to the other disciples; therefore, Peter himself would no longer be a disciple in “the twelve”. So, when writing about them seeing Jesus, Paul would naturally differentiate between the current leader of “the twelve”, Cephas, which is Peter, and “the twelve” itself.
The Aramaic word “Cephas” may have attained the status of a title: the leader of both the Jerusalem church and “the twelve”. That’s probably why Roman Christians used it instead of “Peter”. Everybody may have called him Peter before he became the leader of both “the twelve” and the Jerusalem church, for example when he was doing missionary work. That may explain Galatians 2:7–8.
Mark 16:7, “…go, tell his disciples and Peter…”, may be a reference to the later leader, Peter, being singled out from the group. Although it could reasonably be argued it is a response to Peter’s denials of Jesus.
Yes, I thought of that also — being called a “Rock” as an early title of prestige or leadership before eventually being replaced with other titles such as “Bishop” or “Pope” later in the first century. A bit quirky, but it seems possible for proto-Christianity with all the commotion that was occurring between the crucifixion and the temple destruction. Being titled as “Rock” would certainly differentiate Peter (or Cephus, or possibly others) as a leading Jesus disciple (instead of using the term rabbi or priest – terms of leadership which Peter would not have been seen as qualified for by the Jewish population.) I like that theory!
Good points. Acts 1:15-26 suggests that “the twelve” were twelve positions that could easily be filled by other people. In that case it would be more like an office, e.g. the secretary of state, occupied by different people under different administrations. Matthias is chosen by lots to replace Judas Iscariot. Perhaps historically somebody else was chosen to replace Peter’s position when Peter became the leader of the group.
Although Acts 1 suggests that Peter was still part of “the eleven” that may not be historically correct. If the Jerusalem church was thinking of “the twelve” as malleable positions, then it probably had a malleable view of who would rule with Jesus when Yahweh establishes his kingdom on Earth. It also suggests that when Jesus told his top 12 followers, they would rule the 12 tribes of Israel he didn’t know Judas Iscariot would betray him.
And that’s a theological problem for Christianity. If Jesus knew Matthias would replace Judas Iscariot, then he would have said that eleven would rule with him. Or maybe the early Christians thought that Judas Iscariot would somehow get in right standing with Yahweh so that Jesus alleged saying could be literally correct.
Bart,
Murphy-O’Connor (2009) analyzed Paul’s use of “all” (πᾶσιν) before and after a noun in all of Paul’s letters and found that 90% of the time Paul placed the word “all” before the noun, not after the noun like in 1 Cor 15:7, and same thing for all applicable 14 OT citations and the Phil 2:6-11 hymn, concluding, “These observations confer a minimum probability on the hypothesis that Paul added pasin [‘all’] to the traditional statement (ôphthê) Iakôbô eita tois apostolois.” Two questions:
1] What do you think of Murphy-O’Connor’s conclusion (and observations if you’ve ever had a chance to check them out)?
2] What do you think of the idea that the 1 Cor 15:5 & 7 traditions intend that: Peter is the leader of the 12, James is the leader of a group of apostles other than the 12 (possibly more traveling and maybe Greek instead of Aramaic speaking), and Paul added the word “all” in 1 Cor 15 to make sure his audience knew he wasn’t under the leadership of James, i.e., he was a *major* leader like Peter and James.
1. Yup, he’s right. I haven’t done a count, but the word over 200 times in the Pauline letters, usually before the noun it modifies. Not always though, so that’s important.
2. I think if he did add it it could be read in a number of ways. I don’t see why it would indicate that Paul wanted to ensure readers not think he was under the authority of James. So far as I know it never *was* read that way (so if that was his intent, he failed rather miserably). I’m also not sure why adding it before or after the noun makes the reading either more or less probable. Does Murphy-OConnor detect a different meaning in the places where it comes after? .disabledupes{0ba3d9a9541d9506008e0614f8d5c15b}disabledupes
If Paul added “all” (pasin) to the end of an already fixed tradition “ôphthê Iakôbô eita tois apostolois,” you said “it could be read in a number of ways.” What are your different proposals for why Paul would add this qualifier to a fixed tradition?
I’d suggest you come up with some ways!
And maybe we should move on to some other topic — I think we know each others views well enough.
In answer to your question to me: Murphy-O’Connor doesn’t propose different meanings when πᾶσιν comes before/after a noun; his only point is that coming after the noun in vs. 7 (90% unusual) favors Paul adding it to prior fixed tradition “James, then to the apostles.”
Only two proposals for Paul adding “all” make any sense to me: 1) to emphasize/maximize headcount for apologetic reasons, and/or 2) to emphasize the twelve apostles are also included. But this second reason admits some might take vs. 7 in it’s original form to NOT include the twelve, which might mean that’s how it was actually understood, hence my thought (which I’ve never expressed before) that if “James, then to the apostles” meant only apostles under the leadership of James, and also individual appearances, then Paul adding “all” right before his “last of all” appearance might be to emphasize that he’s not a low level apostle under James, he’s a separate bigshot like Peter/James. As far as I know, we don’t know how early Christians understood “all” in vs. 7 or what relation they saw in “James, then to the apostles”; it’s all guesswork, so I’m struggling to understand the import of your statement “it never *was* read that way.” Can you clarify?
If “*all* the apostles” were exhaustive, Paul would seem to be excluded. Yet Paul clearly considers himself an apostle and repeatedly calls himself one. Thus, Paul’s placement after “all the apostles” demonstrates that an individual can be mentioned separately from a group to which he belongs. The same logic could apply to Cephas and the Twelve. Therefore, the syntax alone cannot establish that Cephas was distinct from Peter or from the Twelve.
I believe hes referring to the peole who were already apostles at the time Christ appeared to them. Paul converted later (as he himself indicates in the passage)
Right- Paul is an apostle, yet he is mentioned after “all the apostles” because his appearance occurred later. Likewise, Cephas could be one of the Twelve while being mentioned separately because Jesus appeared to him before appearing to the Twelve collectively.
“Paul is a 3rd individual named in this list, another unbeliever ”
delusional, smarter than the apostles &working harder- trait of middle management- that is deacons. but because of this productivity- given status by Peter brother, not the Chosen 12- not Iscariot but Matthias.
Only Ananias can give testimony to Saul’s blindness.
Peter wasn’t Roman Catholic [formal religion], he was Armenian JEW cultish