Here now is the fifth of my twelve favorite Christmas posts of years gone by, in our celebration of the Twelve Days of Christmas.
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Yesterday’s blog was about the account of Jesus’ birth in Luke; today I talk about Matthew. Even a casual reading shows that these are two very different accounts. Matthew has nothing about the birth of John the Baptist, the Annunciation, the census, the trip to Bethlehem, the shepherds, the presentation in the Temple. Matthew’s version, as a result, is much shorter. Most of his stories are found only in his account. And some of the differences from Luke appear to involve downright discrepancies, as I will try to show in another post.
For now: Matthew’s version. Matthew begins with a genealogy of Jesus. Luke also has a genealogy, but it is given after Jesus is baptized in ch. 3, instead of where you would expect it, at his birth in ch. 1. I’ll explain my view of that in a later post. After the genealogy of Matthew in which Jesus is traced to David, the greatest king of Israel, and to Abraham, the father of Israel, we move right to the birth story.
Mary has conceived by the Holy Spirit; Joseph wants to divorce her quietly; he learns from an angel in a dream that she has conceived by the Holy Spirit, and that it has all been in order to fulfill the prophecy of Isa. 7:14, which Matthew quotes as saying “a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emmanuel.” They don’t actually call him Emmanuel, of course (a Hebrew term that means “God is with us”) but Jesus (which means “salvation.”)
All of that is in ch. 1. Ch. 2 is mainly about the coming of the wise men and what happens in their wake. The wise men have come from the east, following a star, to find the place where the new King of the Jews has been born so they can worship him. Why anyone would want to worship a new Jewish king is never explained (did people worship Solomon? Or Herod?). Presumably the reader is to assume that it is “that” Jewish King, the Messiah, who will save people not from foreign oppressors but from their sin, as the angel himself points out earlier. In any event, the wise men are led to Jerusalem and the star apparently stops or disappears. So they make inquiries, word gets to the king Herod, he asks the jewish scholars where the messiah is to be born, they tell him Bethlehem – since so it is predicted in Scripture — he tells the wise men, and asks them to come back to tell him when they learn the child’s whereabouts, and lo and behold, the star reappears and leads them to Bethlehem and stops “over the place” where the child is. The child is in a house (v. 11). The wise men worship him with three gifts of gold frankincense and myrrh (we’re not told that there were three wise men, only that they had three gifts). They then are warned in a dream not to return to Herod who wants to kill the child, so they go another way.
Herod realizes he’s been duped and sends out the troops to kill all the boys two years and younger in Bethlehem, the so-called “Slaughter of the Innocents,” said again to fulfill Scripture. But Joseph had been warned in a dream and fled before the troops came, taking the child and his mother to Egypt. They stay in Egypt until Herod dies. But when they come back to the land, they are unable to settle again in Judea, because Herod’s son Archelaus is ruling there, and he’s worse even than his father had been. So they resettle in the north, in Nazareth, to fulfill the Scripture that said he would ba a Nazarene.
This is a terrifically interesting passage in its own right, a powerful and moving story. But historically it is absolutely riddled with problems, as I’ll point out in the next post. Here I simply want to make a simple point. Suppose you were to read Matthew, and Matthew was the only Gospel you had ever read, and this is the only version of Jesus’ birth you had ever heard, so that you were not assuming that its story had to be filled out by some other account of these events (e.g., those of Luke or of the Christmas pageant you saw last night), and suppose you asked yourself, according to this account, what is Joseph and Mary’s home town?
The answer should be obvious. Their hometown, for this account, is Bethlehem. That’s where they’re from. There is no word here about them coming from somewhere else. Jesus is born, and it is in Bethlehem. The live in a “house” there – as the wise men discovered. Why would they be living in a house if they were just visiting for a weekend to register for a census? Because they aren’t registering for a census. They live there.
Further evidence: when Joseph brings the family back from Egypt, where is it he first plans to go? Judea (the country Bethlehem was in), not Galilee (where Nazareth was). The only reason he can’t return “home” is because of the wicked new ruler Archelaus. So he has to move the family. The original home was Bethlehem, but Jesus ends up being raised in Nazareth.
Note also, for a third piece of evidence, the wise men do not appear to come the night Jesus was born, as commonly imagined. The star evidently appeared at Jesus’ birth, and it takes the wise men a long time to get there. Evidence: when Herod tells his troops to slaughter the innocent boys, he instructs them to kill every boy 2 years and under. If the child was born yesterday, there would be no need to kill the toddlers, only the newborns, or say any child under a month just to be sure. This shows that for this story, the wise men came many months, or well over a year, after Jesus was born. And where do they find him? In Bethlehem. In his house. No way around it, I think. Matthew assumes that Joseph and Mary originally lived in Bethlehem, and they moved to Nazareth only because they had to escape the wrath of the Judean kings.
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“They don’t actually call him Emmanuel, of course (a Hebrew term that means ‘God is with us’) but Jesus (which means ‘salvation.’)”
What is the scholarly consensus on what Jesus’ given name at birth was? Is it really thought to have been “Jesus”? Was that a common name in that region and time? Or was “Jesus” a nom de guerre that he picked up during his ministry?
It would be remarkable if parents named their child “Salvation” and then he grew up to claim to be the messiah (even an altogether human messiah) and then an entire religion was built up around him based on the premise that he saved all of mankind from eternal damnation (if only they believe).
Is it thought that his given name at birth was something more ordinary, or was “Jesus” already an ordinary name?
Dear Bart,
I was listening to your (excellent) Misquoting Jesus podcast on Was Jesus Really Born in Bethlehem (https://youtu.be/0i7Sa3WXfhM?si=NMjSQkFsUuTfky_z). From about 17m onwards you discuss two non-canonical accounts of Jesus’ birth, and you state “we don’t have any accounts that are independent of the New Testament” (19:07). You then discuss the Gospel of James and the Gospel of Ps-Matthew.
I agree those two accounts are probably inspired by NT texts. However – I would like to propose we have two, maybe three accounts that are independent of the NT:
1. The Odes of Solomon (Ode19) which some scholars (Charlesworth1998:14-20) see as a 1st C text, especially as it appears to be composed by a Johannine community who were influenced by the DSS.
2. The Ascension of Isaiah (AoI11), which Bauckham (1998:384) dates to the late 1st C, and is also thought to be linked to a Johannine community (as you argued, Ehrman2013:336-7).
3. Ps. Eusebius and the Star is an early 2nd C text (https://www.tertullian.org/fathers/eusebius_star.htm, see Hannah2015:433-463 for a good review) that may or may not predate the NT infancy narratives.
The first two (and possibly the third) do not seem to show dependence on the NT infancy narratives. Would you agree? If not, why?
The Magi’s journey to Jerusalem began when they witnessed Jupiter, the celestial representation of the most high god, entering the constellation Virgo, symbolizing the virgin. This astronomical event led them to believe that Isaiah’s messianic prophecy was about to be fulfilled. They set out towards Jerusalem, arriving in Bethlehem exactly nine months after Jupiter had left Virgo.
Typically, Jupiter remains in Virgo for about a year. Therefore, the Magi arrived approximately one year and nine months after Jupiter first entered Virgo. This coincided with the time of Mary’s childbirth, allowing the Magi to visit the newborn during Mary and Joseph’s brief stay in Bethlehem.
Herod, in an attempt to eliminate the potential threat, ordered the execution of all male infants in Bethlehem born within the past two years. This timeframe was chosen to ensure that he caught the child, given that the Magi had arrived approximately one year and nine months after Jupiter’s entrance into Virgo.
When Mary and Joseph returned from Egypt, the text does not say that they were heading back to Bethlehem. An angel told Joseph to return to Israel. Unlike Herod, Archelaus’s power did not extend to Galilee so they settled there.
Dr. Ehrman,
In 1 Chron 4:1, it states Bethlehem as son of Ephrathah, son of Hur (not Perez!). (See also 1 Sam 17:12). So Bethlehem is a Person, not a place?… If Bethlehem is a place, then why would Micah refer to Bethlehem as a clan? Also, even if used as a place, why would Micah use a place named after the wrong son of Judah (Hur), esp. since Micah is speaking of a Davidic (Perez) ruler. On the other hand, if Bethlehem is a person, then why all the rigamarole to turn it into a place?
If the Old Testament prophesy was that he would be called Emmanuel, why was he called Jesus?
I’m currently reading your book Armageddon, and I heard you talk about this in courses and Youtube lectures. Whisenant, Lindsey and their prophecies were unknown to me until I heard you talk about them a few years ago. But I do know about Jehovah’s witnesses and their teachings (such as their ideas about the year 1914) since my teens. They are active also in Sweden, and I have friends that have been involved with them.
It struck me when I read the prophecies in Matthew (mostly in 1-2), and to some extent elsewhere in NT, that Matthew (and the others) use the scriptures in a similar way as Jehovah’s withesses, and also as Whisenant, Lindsey and other modern apocalypticists: They all read passages from the scriptures without bothering about the context when they were written, put them together in a random fashion without any logic and apply them to later events.
Do you think it is meaningful to compare Matthew’s interpretation of the scriptures to JW, Whisenant, Lindsey etc. as I do, or were the situations in the times they were and are active too different to make such a comparision meaningful?
I think you’re right that they have a similar approach to Scripture, and in fact they all do have common roots (as I explain a bit in my book when I talk about the Millerites and the development of fundamentalism in the UK and US).
Joseph to divorce Mary ? I missed there mariage party in thé Gospels ?
To break of a betrothal (which was an actual ceremony) required something like a divorce (rather than, say, ghosting). But the term in Greek simply means something like “to release her”
Hello again,
Your explanation made sense to me and then I went to read the actual Scriptures about this issue (should have done that first).
Isaiah 7:14
“Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel”
Matthew 1:23
“Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which is, being interpreted, ‘God with us’”
The name Immanuel is a transliteration of the original Hebrew word, which is composed of “Immanu” (with us) and “El” (God). The NET Bible is one of the few translations that maintains this distinction.
It seems to me that calling his name Immanuel would be to give him that name?
Apparently not, since in the text he is not given that name. So it must be a description of who he is and what his presence/authority menas.