In my previous post I pointed out that scribes appear to have changed their texts of the New Testament in ways that reflected the rising anti-Jewish sentiment of the early Christian centuries. For me, by a wide margin, the most intriguing example of this is the prayer Jesus makes from the cross in Luke’s Gospel (and nowhere else in the New Testament) “Father forgive them, for they don’t know what they’re doing.”
I wrote about this passage in an article many years ago that I called “The Text of the Gospels at the End of the Second Century,” which was reprinted in a collection of my more scholarly essays on textual criticism called Studies in the Textual Criticism of the New Testament (Brill, 2006; the paper was originally written for a conference in 1993) (not that I’m dating myself…)
The paper was written for fellow scholars, but I’ve decided to go ahead and include it here verbatim. BUT, I have added several explanatory comments in [brackets] for technical terms and ideas that are not the sort of thing you hear your neighbor saying when raking the leaves.
Here’s the relevant portion of the chapter on the verse.
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If our literary sources are any guide at all (which is an ongoing and serious question, but at least among the literary elite—such as our anonymous scribes—they are surely of some significance), the end of the second century was a time of vitriolic polemic by Christians against the Jews and all they stood for. This was an age when literary attacks by Christians against Jews qua Jews had become de rigeur, when authors like “Barnabas” could claim that the Jews had professed a religion of error from the days of Moses, that they had always misinterpreted their own Scriptures and so had misconstrued their relationship with God, that the Old Testament was in fact not a Jewish book at all, but a Christian one; when polemicists like Justin could argue that circumcision was a sign not that God had chosen the Jews as his own people, but that he had set them apart for special punishment; and when preachers like Melito could devote entire sermons to inveighing against the Jews as killers of Christ, implicating them with the murder of God.
It was not, by and large, a happy time for Jewish-Christian relations. And the impact of the polemics made itself felt on the transcription of the early Christian texts. The famous Codex Bezae [designated as manuscript D; even though it is from around 400 CE, it appears to embody a form of the text from at least the second century] is one of our earliest manuscripts to omit the prayer of Jesus from the cross in Luke 23:34: “Father forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing.” There are indeed compelling reasons for thinking that the verse was original to Luke and that its exclusion came as a result of second-century polemic against Jews (the shorter text is already found in the early third-century P75). The verse [found only in Luke] coincides perfectly with Luke’s own portrayal of Jesus as calm and in control in the face of his death, more concerned with the fate of others than himself;[i] it shows Jesus in prayer, a distinctive emphasis of Luke, long recognized; the prayer itself embodies the motif of “ignorance”, a notion used throughout Luke-Acts to account for Jesus’ unlawful execution.[ii] [This preceding argument is meant to show that it is likely that Luke himself wrote the verse, that it did not originate with a scribe inserting it into the text.]
Moreover, when one moves from intrinsic to transcriptional arguments, it becomes quite clear that here there is a nice coalescence of probabilities. [Ah, this would take a bit of time to unpack. Basic story: an “intrinsic probability” asks if a verse was likely or not to have been written by the author himself, based on its theology, vocabulary and style: I’ve just answered the question as YES. So that means it is likely it comes from Luke, not a later scribe. Possibly. The next issue is transcriptional probability, which asks – independently of the question of whether an author is likely to have written it – is it more likely to have been *inserted* or *omitted* by a scribe? There you are looking to see what scribes would probably have wanted to do to the text. If the evidence of both intrinsic and transcriptional probabilities point in the same direction, then you have a strong argument] The question to be asked, of course, is whether the verse would have been more likely to be added or omitted by scribes of the third Gospel. Those who would argue for an addition might point to Acts 7:60 as a clue [this is where the first martyr Stephen prays to God for his executioners to be pardoned. Since scribes would possibly not want Stephen to be more forgiving than Jesus himself, could scribes have inserted the verse into Luke in order to show that Jesus too prayed for forgiveness for his executioners?]. Could not the verse have been interpolated by scribes wanting to provide a closer parallel between Jesus and Stephen, the first of his followers to be martyred for his sake?
This position has the appearance of plausibility, but it should be pointed out that Luke himself has gone out of his way to create parallels between Jesus in Luke and the apostles in Acts, as any careful literary analysis will show [i.e., the same author wrote both the Gospel of Luke and the book of Acts; and he himself creates numerous literary parallels between what happens to Jesus in the Gospel and what happens to his followers in Acts]. Indeed, the remarkable similarities between Jesus and Stephen are themselves from Luke’s pen. What is particularly striking in this connection, and telling for the textual problem of Luke 23, is that when Luke creates parallels between Jesus in the Gospel and his apostles in Acts, he does so obliquely, without drawing undue attention to it [that is to say, he doesn’t simply repeat in Acts, verbatim, what he had already said about Jesus in the Gospels; he always states the literary parallels in different words]. Contrast this with how scribes are known to work. Scribal harmonizations are rarely (ever?) oblique; they involve word for word, verbal agreements. The prayer in Luke 23:34, however, is no such thing. If a scribe created the text to harmonize it more closely with Acts 7:60, would not the correspondence be verbal?
If it is difficult to imagine the verse being invented by second-century scribes, can we posit reasons for them wanting to omit it? In its Lukan context, the prayer appears to refer [not to the Roman soldiers who have just done the deed but] to the Jewish leaders who in their ignorance have caused Jesus to be crucified.[iii] But the original meaning of the verse is of little importance for understanding the activities of scribes; the transcriptional question [i.e., the question of why a scribe changed in when transcribing it] involves not what the text meant for Luke, but what it meant for the scribes who tampered with the text. And here we are on even better grounds. For we know from patristic discussions that the verse was normally taken to be Jesus’ prayer for the Jews. At least it is understood that way in the earliest accounts of its exposition that we have, already at the beginning of the third century by Origen and the author of the Didascalia.[iv]
Many Christians in the second century were convinced, however, that God had not forgiven the Jews for what they did to Jesus. This is evident, for instance, not only in the polemic of Melito mentioned above, but also in the widespread notion that the destruction of Jerusalem some forty years after Jesus’ death was a manifestation of God’s anger against them: the Jews’ rejection of Jesus led to their own rejection by God.[v] For scribes who shared this opinion, one can well imagine the puzzlement created by Jesus’ prayer in Luke 23:34. How could the Savior have possibly asked God to forgive the Jews? And if he had, why was he not heard? Much better to excise the verse—as Christian scribes appear to have done, beginning at least at the end of the second century.
[i] Cf. the portrayal of Jesus on the way to the cross in 23:28-31, and his words to the penitent robber soon thereafter (23:39-43).
[ii] Cf. Acts 3:17; 13:27-28. On this, see especially Eldon Jay Epp, “The Ignorance Motif in Acts and Anti-Judaic Tendencies in Codex Bezae”, HTR 55 (1962), 51-62.
[iii] Given the use of the ignorance motif throughout Acts. See Epp, “Ignorance Motif”.
[iv] I owe this information to my graduate student, Kim Haines-Eitzen. Origen, Peri Pascha 43. 33-36; Didascalia, ch. VI and especially ch. XV. See further, David Daube, “For They Know Not What They Do: Luke 23, 34”, Studia Patristica 4 (1961), 58-70.
[v] See, for example, Origen, Contra Celsum IV, 22.
Just an observation:
I assume that these words in Luke: “Father forgive them, for they don’t know what they’re doing” are almost the words of James the Just when the people stoned him at the temple (according to Hegesippus).
There have been serious efforts to omit the accounts of James from the historical records. So probably Luke found it problematic that James was thinking about the people at the time of his death, but Jesus didn’t. So, I speculate that Luke added these words to Jesus and added it as well to Stephen, so Luke is almost saying that it is not just James the Just.
Wow, the plot thickens. Thanks for all this!
I’m not clear about what the scribes did when those words of Jesus became inconvenient. Ok, so they excised the Lukan verse, but did they also delete similar passages in Acts and/or elsewhere?
What happens when a passage is excised? How is it recovered?
The other thing not clear to me is what Codex Bezae is good for. I hope I don’t offend. I read that it is very unreliable. I have it, and it’s very hard to read.
As it turns out, the scribal changes of the text are completely sporadic and apparently ad hoc. If a passage was excised in one manuscript, there were other manuscripts that still had it. So later scribes would have it or not depending on which manuscript they were copying. Textual criticism then looks at the manuscripts and based on a number of sometimes pretty sophisticated criteria tries to figure out which form of the text is “original” and which is the alteratio. Bezae is an amazing manuscript — the most studied of them all. I have friends who have written entire books on it. It sometimes contains textual readings that appear original even though nearly all other Greek mss have a different reading. (I try to show this in some places in my book The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture)
have scholars argued that jesus never said “father forgive them” in lukes original version ? if stephan said it in acts, it is not neccessary that jesus said it before stephan, right?
have scholars argued that scribes made jesus forgiving because stephan was forgiving in acts?
Yes, that’s the theory for why the text did not originally have it but a scribe stuck it in. The problem is that it doesn’t work as an explanation for a *scribal* change. When scribes tried to make one text look like another (in this case, jesus’ prayer like Stephen’s) they almost always made them word for word the same, or very nearly word for word. That’s the striking thing about these two sayings. They are compltely different in how they are worded. So it appears that it was the *author* who drew the connection. The author of Luke and Acts often reflects events/episodes in jesus’ life with what happened with his later apostles, and never in the same words.
Hi Dr Ehrman!
My lectures are starting on Monday-including Ancient Greek!
Do you have any tips or advice?
Thank you so much!
Whoa!! Study hard. Do you know which textbook you’ll be using? It can be difficult at first, so stick with it. When I just started out in college, I had to work my tail off to stay on top of it. It’s a great language. The better you learn it, the more you’ll love it.
Thanks Dr Ehrman! I’ll definitely heed that advice. The textbooks are called Reading Greek (2nd edition), Cambridge university press (one is text and vocabulary and the other is exercises)
Terrific! Enjoy.
I see this as ripe for so many interpretations, just like, and related thematically to, Romans 12: 19-20.
Could it be some of the very first virtue signaling. Christ died for the sins of all humanity but especially for those horrible people who conspired to kill him. So, you Jews must remember, that we are better than you because we Christians can forgive you for the horrible thing you did.
Could it be an attempt to show a reconciliation toward the Jews. Yeah, you killed jesus, but he died for our sins so we’re all good.
Could it be an attempt to heep the coals on the Jews heads to make them feel remorse and convert to Christianity.
Interesting ideas. In its context, the point of the prayer is played out later in the book of Acts, written by the same author. People have been ignorant in their sin, but now God forgives them. In the apostles’ speeches in ACts they will tell the jewish crowds: you killed him; you didn’t know any better; God is now willing to forgive you; repent of what you’ve done. And in teh story, it works.
We know that anti-Jewish sentiment is not dead, unfortunately. Have you noticed any modern scholars that interpret the NT text with an anti-Semitic tone? For example, arguing that Luke 23:34 was not in the original despite evidence to the contrary. I realize it’s hard to infer motives, but just wondering if you’ve sensed hints of anti-Semitism in some scholars.
Many scholars don’t think it was original, but you’re right, it would be impossible to know if any anti-Jewish bias leads them that way, especially since the evidence is not completely compelling either way.
Thank you, Bart. I recently read this passage and felt concerned about the footnote that says some ancient authorities do not contain it. And I considered asking you about it.
On one hand, I feel happy that the passage likely appeared in the original manuscript.
On the other hand, I feel sorry about what plausibly points to unforgiving scribes who deliberately left it out.
This is a perfect example of one of my main problems with the NT and Christianity in general. Please help me understand the dichotomy presented here.
1. Jesus was stent to save the world as a sacrificial lamb to die for our sins
2. Jews killed Jesus/God and must pay the price for this atrocity.
Was Jesus “destined” to die or he was sabotaged? Or was the death the stimulus for a complete rewrite of the mission?
Seems to me the Christians should be honouring the Jews for carrying out the most sacred act of history. Without the actions of the Jews, Christianity would never have blossomed.
Yes, it’s a problem inherent in many places in monotheistic religions, and is seen on numerous levels. If God is all-knowing then how can he get angry, and if he knows someone isn’t going to accept him why doesn’t he do something about it; within Xty, if Judas *had* to betray Jesus then why is he evil. Etc….
Hi Dr. Ehrman, big fan!
I wanted to ask, what do you think of “The Gospel of Afranius”? (It’s a foreign work, praised in “Nature”, that aims to disprove the claim that the evidence implies resurrection – I have tested it on “Reasonable Faith” apologists and they don’t know what to say!)
I”m afraid I don’t know about it.
So many emendations, for the sake of the creed Du jour.
Here is the entire text:
32 Two other men, both criminals, were also led out with him to be executed. 33 When they came to the place called the Skull, they crucified him there, along with the criminals—one on his right, the other on his left. 34 Jesus said, “Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing.” And they divided up his clothes by casting lots.
I don’t know where the association with the Jews comes into this. It appears to be more immediately related to the Roman guard that carried out the crucifixion. In other words – “Father, don’t punish these who are simply acting out of fear of reprisals.”
This not at all to dispute the textual history here – I am more concerned with the ascribed politics.
Yes, that’s what I always thought too. But it turns out that in the early church, when the manuscripts were changed, the common view was that Jesus was praying for forgiveness for the Jews. Moreover, when you read Luke’s second volume, Acts, the apostles preach specifically to Jews that they were the ones who killed Jesus but they were ignorant of what they were doing. So it appears this may indeed have been Luke’s view. But the important thing is that it’s what copyists in the period appear to have *thought* was his view.
” In the apostles’ speeches in ACts they will tell the jewish crowds: you killed him; you didn’t know any better; God is now willing to forgive you; repent of what you’ve done. And in teh story, it works.”
could this be a reason why jesus was made to say “father forgive them…..” ?
“Seems to me the Christians should be honouring the Jews for carrying out the most sacred act of history. Without the actions of the Jews, Christianity would never have blossomed.”
i see it worse than this.
what xtianity says is that the animal sacrificial system which brings atonement didnt even forgive sins and that the only way to have relationship with god is to violently sacrifice jesus for sins. this would imply that the jews have no other choice but to willingly kill jesus for their sins.
It’s always been a dilemma for Xns to explain how something “had” to happen but people are at “fault” for doing it!
Prof. Ehrman, Do you think that the Gospel of John contains any comtent that is both historically true and absent from the 3 other cannonical gospels? Or is John just a less historically accurate account of at every turn? Put another way, does John tell us anything about the historical Jesus or the historical apostles tbat we wouldn’t know from the other gospels?
I don’t really know. There’s nothing that leaps out to me. Others have other opinions: Paula Fredriksen, e.g., thinks there is a lot (e.g., multiple trips to Jerusalem).
Sorry, coming late to this thread. Dr. Ehrman, you state: “Justin could argue that circumcision was a sign not that God had chosen the Jews as his own people, but that he had set them apart for special punishment”. Do you mean the early apologist Justin Martyr? Either way, would you supply a source for this. Thanks!
Yup. It’s in his Dialogue with Trypho, ch. 16.
Thanks for this article, Prof. Ehrman. I had been wondering about this quotation, because as others mention it never seemed logical. But I’m not a believer, so I don’t really have a horse in that race. I don’t expect scripture to be inerrant, or even coherent.
This also clarifies that Jew-hating wasn’t a later feature of Christianity as I had casually assumed, but was built in at the start? That’s another thing I have thought a lot about lately, and wonder if it will ever stop (although that’s not a question I expect anyone to answer).
I guess it depends on when we date “the start.” I don’t think anything like “anti-Judaism” was around for the first few decades of Christianity, but by the time of the Gospels it certainly was.