Sometimes readers ask questions that have answers they probably would not suspect in a million years.  My guess is that this is true of the following interesting query about a contradiction between the Gospel of Luke and the book of Acts (written by the same author) about the ascension of Jesus.



Talking of authors who contradict themselves any idea why Luke has Jesus ascending on the day of his resurrection but Acts places it 40 days later!? This seems like quite an obvious mistake for the same writer to make.



I explain the problem and try to come up with a solution in my book The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture.  Here is what I say there (edited to get rid of some of the technical discussion that is not directly germane to the question):


How did the proto-orthodox doctrines of Jesus’ bodily ascension and return in judgment affect the text of Scripture? I begin by considering a problem that proves particularly difficult to adjudicate. The final verses of Luke’s Gospel record Jesus’ departure from his disciples: “And it happened that while he was blessing them, he was removed from them and was taken up into heaven. And they, worshipping him, returned into Jerusalem with great joy” (Luke 24:51–52). Two of the key phrases of this climactic scene, however, are lacking in significant textual witnesses: “and he was taken up into heaven” (v. 51) from manuscripts D a b d e ff  along with (interestingly enough) codex Sinaiticus, and “worshipping him” (v. 52) from D a b d e.  Without these disputed phrases we have a very different conclusion to Luke’s Gospel. Now Jesus simply leaves his disciples (without ascending into heaven) and they do not worship him when he does.

The textual problem is complicated by the circumstance that…

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