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Was Jesus (PBUH) a "Meshullam" (Muslim)?
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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:05 am

The word “Muslim”(Meshullam) in Hebrew Bible Isaiah 42:19.

משלם

Hebrew משלם is Arabic “Muslim” form S-L-M root.

The word “Muslim” is in the Hebrew Bible Isaiah 42:19. Following are English translation of the word “Muslim” in different English translations of the Bible.

⦁ King James ————————-“he who is perfect”

⦁ Ellicott’s Commentary ————-“surrendered one”

⦁ World English Bible —————-“he who is at peace”

⦁ American Standard Version——–” he that is at peace with me”

⦁ New International Version———-“one in covenant with me(G-d)”

⦁ New Living Translation—————-“my chosen people”

⦁ English Standard Version ————-“my dedicated one”

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:06 am

Ellicott’s Commentary on Isaiah 42:19. כִּמְשֻׁלָּ֔ם

As he that is perfect.—Strictly speaking, the devoted, or surrendered one. The Hebrew meshullam is interesting, as connected with the modern Moslem and Islam, the man resigned to the will of God.

 

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:12 am

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As he that is perfect – (כמשׁלם kı̂meshullâm).

The Syriac renders it, ‘Who is blind as the prince?’ Symmachus renders it, Ὡς ὁ τέλειος hōs ho teleios; and Kimchi in a similar manner by תמים tâmı̂ym – ‘perfect.’ The verb שׁלם shālam means properly “to be whole, sound, safe”; to be completed, finished, ended: and then, to be at peace or friendship with anyone. And it may he applied to the Jews, to whom it undoubtedly refers here, in one of the following senses; 

 

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Hebrew “Meshullam” משׁלם was translated to Greek ὁ τέλειος.

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:17 am

Bible says Jesus was τέλειος and he ask his followers to become τέλειος.

 

The Hebrew translation of New Testament Brit Hadashah (New Testament) translates Greek τέλειος to  Hebrew Salem (Whole) or some time to “Meshulam” (Muslim) and some other words.

 

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:23 am

King James Bible often translates “Teleios” to “Perfect”.

Hebrews 7:28

For the law appoints as high priests men in all their weakness; but the oath, which came after the law, appointed the Son, who has been made perfect (Meshullam) forever.

 

Deuteronomy 20:12

 The word “Taslim” תַשְׁלִים֙ it is from the same S-L-M root and it means “Submission” or “Make Peace”.

So S-L-M in Hebrew also gets translated to “Submission” or “Make Peace”.

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:29 am

Hebrew 7:28

כי התורה העמידה לכהנים גדולים בני אדם חלשים אבל דבר השבועה הבאה אחרי התורה העמיד את הבן המשלם לעולם׃

 

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המשלם = The Muslim.

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:34 am

Hebrew 5:8-9

8.Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from what He suffered. ** you do not have permission to see this link **And having been made perfect, He became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey Him 

Hebrew 5:9

ואחרי אשר השלם היה ממציא תשועת עולמים לכל שמעיו

 

השלם = The “Salem”.     “Salem” and “Muslim” have same root.  

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:41 am

Greek  τέλειος often translated to Hebrew “Salem” or “Meshullam” (Muslim).

Greek  τέλειος means

perfect, (a) complete in all its parts, (b) full grown, of full age, (c) specially of the completeness of Christian character.

 

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FishorPharoah

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January 1, 2020 - 10:44 am

Matthew 19:21

Jesus answered, “If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.”

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ויאמר ישוע אליו אם חפצך להיות שלם לך מכר את רכשך ותן לעניים והיה לך אוצר בשמים ושוב הלם ולך אחרי

 

שלם = Salem 

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godspell

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January 1, 2020 - 5:16 pm

I’m not sure this is a meaningful question (as with all great religions, Islam can be a lot of things), but of course Muslims have some of the same values as Jesus professed, since Muhammad borrowed a great deal from both Judaism and Christianity.  Islam would not exist without Christianity, nor would Christianity exist without Judaism, nor would Judaism exist without the polytheistic faith it came from.  

And don’t many of these same values exist in Buddhism, Taoism, Hinduism, Zoroastrianism?

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FocusMyView

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January 2, 2020 - 12:31 pm

If Muslim means “a man (or person) surrendered to God”, then Jesus was a Muslim. 
If Christian means one who accepts Jesus lived and accepts his message, than Mohammed was a Christian. 

Your move. 

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Steefen
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January 2, 2020 - 5:38 pm

Jesus was a Muslim retroactively?

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FocusMyView

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January 2, 2020 - 7:15 pm

It just means “servant of God (Allah)” So was Adam a servant of God? If yes, he was a Muslim. And from what I have read, all the prophets of Judaism and then Jesus are not only Muslims (servants of God), they are Muslim prophets. 

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FishorPharoah

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January 2, 2020 - 8:24 pm

FocusMyView said
If Muslim means “a man (or person) surrendered to God”, then Jesus was a Muslim. 
If Christian means one who accepts Jesus lived and accepts his message, than Mohammed was a Christian. 
Your move.   

 

 The word “Christian” was used by Gentiles.  The disciples were called Christians first in Antioch

 

A main point of interest, however, is connected with the progress of Christianity among the non-Jewish believers. Tradition holds that the first ** you do not have permission to see this link **

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FishorPharoah

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January 2, 2020 - 8:32 pm

The word  “Muslim” was used in the Book of Isaiah 42.   Prophet Isaiah lived in 8th-century BCE.   The word “Christian” was first used after Jesus (PBUH) according to Acts 11:26.

 

According to the Hebrew translation of the New Testament Jesus (PBUH) was “Meshullam” (Muslim).  King James Bible translated “Meshullam” to “He that is Perfect”.    Bible says Jesus (PBUH) is “Perfect” and he ask his followers to be “Perfect”.  “Perfect” in Hebrew is “Meshullam”.

How to says “Perfect” in Hebrew, check the link below:

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FocusMyView

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January 2, 2020 - 10:34 pm

Shalom said
The word  “Muslim” was used in the Book of Isaiah 42.   Prophet Isaiah lived in 8th-century BCE.   The word “Christian” was first used after Jesus (PBUH) according to Acts 11:26.

 

According to the Hebrew translation of the New Testament Jesus (PBUH) was “Meshullam” (Muslim).  King James Bible translated “Meshullam” to “He that is Perfect”.    Bible says Jesus (PBUH) is “Perfect” and he ask his followers to be “Perfect”.  “Perfect” in Hebrew is “Meshullam”.

How to says “Perfect” in Hebrew, check the link below:

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OF course, a Christian is a follower of Christ, so Isaiah could not be a Christian. But a Muslim is simply a committed follower of God, so the birth of no man, including Mohamed, constrains who can be titled as a Muslim. Only the person’s beliefs dictate that. 

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FocusMyView

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January 2, 2020 - 10:47 pm

So in the Acts verses, it says that the disciples scattered and some went to Antioch, preaching only among the Jews. (Antioch had a long tradition of a large Jewish population.) Then it says something curious: men from Cyprus and Cyrene went to Antioch and preached also to the Greeks. 
So while Gentiles were completely included, it was first to the Jews, even in Antioch. A minor point, to be sure, because as you said this is the first time, according to Acts, they would be called Christians. 

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godspell

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January 3, 2020 - 8:05 am

The question seems to imply that only monotheists can be justified in the eyes of the godhead.

Was Gandhi a Muslim?  He did argue for the underlying unity of all sincere faith, monotheist or polytheist.  He, like Jesus, thought that it was less about one’s devotion to God up in the heavens than God in the form of one’s fellow beings here on earth.

Muslims often dream of a day when everyone is a Muslim, as Christians have dreamed of a world entirely Christian (now atheists dream of a world entirely atheist).

That dream has led to unending bloodshed and hatred.  It’s the wrong dream.  It’s not true unity.  Unity is seeing that the person who differs with you in bellief is still your brother, your sister, your neighbor–and perhaps, God in disguise.  So every blow struck against that person is a blow against God.  

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FishorPharoah

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January 3, 2020 - 12:17 pm

godspell said
The question seems to imply that only monotheists can be justified in the eyes of the godhead.

Was Gandhi a Muslim?  He did argue for the underlying unity of all sincere faith, monotheist or polytheist.  He, like Jesus, thought that it was less about one’s devotion to God up in the heavens than God in the form of one’s fellow beings here on earth.

Muslims often dream of a day when everyone is a Muslim, as Christians have dreamed of a world entirely Christian (now atheists dream of a world entirely atheist).

That dream has led to unending bloodshed and hatred.  It’s the wrong dream.  It’s not true unity.  Unity is seeing that the person who differs with you in bellief is still your brother, your sister, your neighbor–and perhaps, God in disguise.  So every blow struck against that person is a blow against God.    

  The Bible says Jesus (PBUH) is τέλειος = “Muslim”.

Bible says Jesus ask his followers to be τέλειος = “Muslim”.

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FishorPharoah

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January 3, 2020 - 12:19 pm

Hebrew 5:9 says Jesus (PBUH) is  is τέλειος = “Muslim”.

Hebrew 7:28 say Jesus (PBUH) is  is τέλειος = “Muslim”.

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