The Sign of the Cross is created from Matthew 28:18-19. However the words are not a Sign, or sign-language. The Sign of the Cross is not words. It is a movement of the hand and object held by the hand. It is not words. The Sign of the Cross has not any words to translate or paraphrase.
“English is the Vulgar tongue of Latin. The Catholic Church prohibited it being spoken as the language of the church”
What’s referred to by “it”? (Latin? English?)
Below, is there a:
translation?
paraphrase?
Mark 5:41 (Greek Orthodox Church 1904)
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καὶ κρατήσας τῆς χειρὸς τοῦ παιδίου λέγει αὐτῇ·
Ταλιθά, κοῦμι, ὅ ἐστι μεθερμηνευόμενον, Τὸ κοράσιον, σοὶ λέγω ἔγειρε.
To what exactly does “the second death” refer?
(NABRE)
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Revelation 2:11
“‘“Whoever has ears ought to hear what the Spirit says to the churches.
The victor shall not be harmed by the second death.”’
Revelation 20:6
Blessed and holy is the one who shares in the first resurrection.
The second death has no power over these;
they will be priests of God and of Christ,
and they will reign with him for [the] thousand years.
Revelation 20:14
Then Death and Hades were thrown into the pool of fire.
(This pool of fire is the second death.)
Revelation 21:8
But as for cowards, the unfaithful, the depraved,
murderers, the unchaste, sorcerers,
idol-worshipers, and deceivers of every sort,
their lot is in the burning pool of fire and sulfur,
which is the second death.”
Aramaic and Greek, Latin can be translations of eachother because those languages existed during the 1st century. English did not, modern Hebrew did not.
I see what must be a really more than most illusions of a ancient greek word.
A μι verb. So you have a first person pronoun μι attached as a prefix onto the verb all as one word in the Active voice.
No, it’s not a greek word. One Aramaic word is traslated as three greek words
σοι (dative case: 2nd person pronoun)
to you
λεγω (verb with 1st person pronoun in active voice, present tense)
I say
εγειρε (verb, vocative case ending of ε, which is also the Imperative mood 2nd person present tense active voice)
you wake up, (Talitha)
English does not have an equivalent word. It must be paraphrased as an expression of words to include the pronoun and voice. One Aramaic word has then become three greek words, and six or more English words.
🤷♂️
I call it a paraphrase, not a genuine translation.
In your view, did the Greek for Luke 7:47 correctly render what Jesus said in Aramaic?
Luke 7:47
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(Berean Literal)
Therefore I say to you this:
Her many sins have been forgiven,
for she loved much;
but to whom little is forgiven,
he loves little.”
(Young’s Literal)
therefore I say to thee,
her many sins have been forgiven,
because she did love much;
but to whom little is forgiven,
little he doth love.’
Luke 7:47 (Greek Orthodox Church 1904)
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οὗ χάριν λέγω σοι,
ἀφέωνται αἱ ἁμαρτίαι αὐτῆς αἱ πολλαί,
ὅτι ἠγάπησε πολύ·
ᾧ δὲ ὀλίγον ἀφίεται,
ὀλίγον ἀγαπᾷ.
The verse agrees with a synopsis that John the Baptist and Jesus were teaching ways of forgiveness that were in disagreement with the traditional animal sacrifice rituals of the Temple Priesthoods.
The verb αφιημι is perhaps a metaphorical description of the scapegoat and whatever happened to it afterwards. It fell off the cliff. 🤷♂️
“She neither had repented”
I bet she “had repented.”
Luke 7 (NIV)
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36 When one of the Pharisees invited Jesus to have dinner with him,
he went to the Pharisee’s house and reclined at the table.
37 A woman in that town who lived a sinful life
learned that Jesus was eating at the Pharisee’s house,
so she came there with an alabaster jar of perfume.
38 As she stood behind him at his feet weeping,
she began to wet his feet with her tears.
Then she wiped them with her hair,
kissed them
and poured perfume on them.
“nor offered a sacrifice at the Second Temple, yet Jesus says her sins were forgiven because she had loved much (more than). She had loved more than she had sinned”
Regarding the scenario posed below, in your view did Simon answer correctly?
Luke 7 (Berean Literal)
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41 “There were two debtors to a certain creditor.
The one owed five hundred denarii,
and the other fifty.
42 They having nothing to pay, he forgave both.
Therefore which of them will love him more?”
43 Simon answering, said,
“I take it that he to whom he forgave the most.”
And He said to him, “You have judged rightly.”
There’s not enough time elapsed in the story to claim repentance. It says nothing of the future actions of the woman. Repentance was not why she was forgiven nor had salvation.
Sin was the past actions. The present action in Luke 7 was faith and love. Faith causeth salvation and love causeth forgiveness. Luke 7:50.
Repentance is the future actions of obedience to law. If people are not forgiven they will not love.
Example: heroin addicts repent often. A week later when they’re in the hell of schizophrenic hallucinations, horrendous body aches and explosive diarrhea and dehydration they get high again to cure themselves from the sickness. The repentance was not successful during that attempt.
Is it possible that the author of Revelation got the concept of a “second death” from a Targum?
Targum Isaiah
_The Chaldee Paraphrase on the Prophet Isaiah [by Jonathan b. Uzziel]_ tr. by C.W.H. Pauli (1871), 226pp.
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Is 22:14
Page n85
14 The prophet said,
with mine ears I was hearing when
this was decreed from before the Lord of hosts,
_namely_, that this your iniquity shall not be forgiven you
till you die the second death,
said the Lord, the God, _the God_ of hosts.
Page n85
Thus we find in the Jerusalem Targum, Deut. xxxiii. 6,
“Let Reuben live in this world, and not die, … , the second death,
with which the wicked die in the world to come.”
The same phrase we find in the Targum on Isaiah lxv. 6, 15 ;
Jeremiah li. 39, 57; and in Philo. De Proemus and Poenis, p. 921.
Is 65:6
Page n232
6 Behold, it is written before me:
I will not give unto them prolongation in this life;
but I will recompense unto them the wages for their sins,
and deliver their bodies to the second death.
Is 65:15
Page n234
15 And ye shall leave your name for a curse to my chosen :
for the Lord God shall slay you with the second death,
and call His righteous servants by another name :
=======================
_The Targum of Jeremiah_ (The Aramaic Bible, Volume 12) (1987), 206pp.
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Jer 51:39
Page 187
… 39. Bring distress upon them,
and they shall be like drunken men,
so that they shall not be strong,
and they shall die the second death,
and shall not live for the world to come,
says the Lord.
Jer 51:57, on 188-189:
57. And I will make her princes and her wise men drunk,
her governors and her tyrants and her mighty men;
and they shall die the second death
and not live for the world to come.”
says the King;
the Lord of Hosts is his Name.
Both as cause-effect relationship. Love and Forgiveness.
The second death is being in a state of reprobation after being “saved”. The first death was sinful existence, being dead to sin before being “saved”, which is the Resurrection. (Preterist)
Reprobates are extremely rare. Worst of the worst. Someone like a Catholic Priest who became a violent apostate and a serial killer and burned down the church and had sex with dead farm animals he worshiped as gods. Never heard of such of thing really. Maybe a Alister Crowely is an example of a Reprobate. Paul is the first source for the hypothetical second death and reprobate. Paul did not become a Reprobate.
Matthew 24:30
νεφελη: metaphorical “clouds of death”
Little Liddell ISBN 1-84356-026-7
clouds (of death) of heaven.
If the passages had implied Israelite people it would have used the phrase “Sons of Israel:Jacob” and not Son of Man.
Matthew 24:34, that was the future Jewish Roman Wars and the resurrection from death in spirit.
Matthew 24:31 is the Acts of the Apostles and Epistles forming the Church.
Matthew 26:2, Jesus as a human being of flesh is also the Son of Man, but afterwards the Church itself becomes the return of Christ while the man Jesus after death and resurrection was in Spirit as the Son God. Romans 1:4, greek genetive υιου θεου.
clouds of death, from heaven.
BDEhrman
FreedomBen
evgendob
Robert
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