I am about ready to wrap up my discussion of the textual problem of 1 Thessalonians 2:7. When recalling his time with the Thessalonians, when he had worked hard not to be a burden with any of them, did Paul indicate that he and his missionary companions had become “as infants, as a nurse tending her children” or that they had become “gentle, as a nurse tending her children.” It is not an obvious decision, whether you think the change was made accidentally or on purpose. (If you think it *is* obvious, look at the preceding two posts). It seems like it might go either way. I myself have an opinion on the matter (textual scholars tend to have opinions); but I”ll hold off on that for a minute.
First: some of you might be wondering–which of these readings do the best surviving manuscripts actually suggest? Is one of the readings (“infants” or “gentle”) better attested than the other? Which reading do our oldest and best manuscripts have?
Here, as it turns out, the answer is fairly straightforward and clear, and the irony (at least for me) is that the reading with the best manuscript support happens to be the one that I think is less likely to be original. Without a doubt, the reading “infants” (NÊPIOI — pronounced nape-ioi) is the better attested reading. We have five manuscripts of this passage that date from around the year 400 or earlier. (These are our five earliest manuscripts. And they include all of our very best manuscripts.) All of them read “infants.” One of these is the only papyrus manuscript we have, P65, from the third century, along with the fourth century manuscripts Vaticanus and Sinaiticus (all in all, our two best complete manuscripts). On the other hand, the first attestation of “gentle” is from the fifth century (codex Alexandrinus).
This is important evidence. Even more interesting, though, is that three of the five earliest and best manuscripts (including codex Sinaiticus) have *corrections* in them to the other reading. In other words, after each manuscript was made, and the world NÊPIOI (infants) was written in the verse, a later scribe came along and *erased* the first letter, so that now the text read ÊPIOI (gentle). On the other hand, there are NO early corrections in the other direction, no early instances in which a text read ÊPIOI (gentle) and a later scribe “corrected” it to NÊPIOI (gentle).
Now, you might think that this pattern of correction would suggest that ÊPIOI (gentle) was the original reading, because it is what scribes typically were correcting the text to read. But actually this evidence points in the *opposite* direction. It would suggest that scribes were more comfortable with the reading “gentle” than the reading “infants,” because that’s clearly the reading they preferred (since they would sometimes change the text in order to make it say that). This is a strong argument for the original text being NÊPIOI, infants.
Despite the strength of that argument, that’s not what I think the text said. I think it originally said “gentle” and that scribes (prior to our existing manuscripts) changed it. Here let me make several points.
First, it is true that the manuscript evidence points in the other direction. But our first manuscript is from 200 years after the original. We simply don’t know what most manuscripts would have said, say, a hundred years earlier. Our strongest evidence is from the fourth century and later. And the evidence from our “correctors” only tell us what scribes living hundreds of years after Paul preferred — not which reading *he* preferred.
My view is that in a case like this we need to choose the reading based on a combination of arguments working together with one another. First, which reading is *more* likely to have been created by scribes? Since “infants” is a more common term in our earliest Christian writings, possibly that one is more likely to have been the one scribes would more likely think of when copying the passage. Moreover, the *other* one is the one that makes the best sense as the one Paul would have written, for three reasons:
(1) It makes the best sense in the overall context of Paul’s writings. Within these writings, whenever Paul uses the term “infants” he uses it to mean something negative: it refers to people who are immature, ignorant, and not ready to face the realities of life. It does not at all seem to be the kind of term Paul would use to describe himself when trying to show that he could have acted with authority as an apostle of God.
(2) It makes the best sense in the immediate context. Paul is likening himself to a nurse caring for her children. What sense does it make to say that he was an “infant-nurse”??? What in the world is that? On the other hand, it does make sense for him to say he was like a “gentle-nurse.” Scribes who saw the word or heard it pronounced simply assumed it was the more common term “infants” and changed it by accident.
(3) For me this last point is a clincher. Years ago a social-historian of early Christianity, Abraham Malherbe, professor of New Testament at Yale, wrote an article in which he showed that the image of a “gentle nurse” was common in certain philosophical traditions of Paul’s day to talk about an authority figure who gently guided and provided for his hearers — precisely as Paul himself applies the image. And so this usage makes particularly good sense in his own world, as seen in other writings at the time.
And so my view is that Paul did not refer to himself as an infant, but as gentle.
I have gone to relative lengths with this one textual variant, involving a single letter of the alphabet in Greek, (and telling most of you more than you really wanted to know, I realize!) simply to give you a sense for what textual scholars are up against and what kinds of arguments they have to consider in making their textual decisions. They have to go through this process methodically, passage after passage, verse after verse, word after word for every book of the New Testament.
This is what some scholars simply *do*. It is a highly complex affair, and not for those who are either faint of heart or wary of detail or averse to long hours of patient reflection and research. I don’t work any longer in this field much, but for those who do, I say, more power to ’em!
What do scholars think of these mainstream Christian Apologetics in general? It seems that what they say in youtube debates is not similar to what is taught in top-class Divinity Schools like Yale, PTS, etc.
Are they respected in top Divinity Schools or by NT Historians in academia? Did they have apologetics classes at these top seminaries?
I’d say that historical scholars as a rule consider Christian apologists who claim to be able to “prove” their faith claims historically to be doing theology rather than history. These are not the views taught outside of conservative Christian circles, which should at least raise red flags about their alleged “objectivity” (if these are secure historical arguments, why don’t they persuade anyone *else* — of any kind — who don’t share a particular set of theological presuppositions?)
I find this fascinating. I was looking at photos of Papyrus 65 online and couldn’t find the word. What is the best source (other than the libraries that hold them) for studying the ancient mss?
“(1) It makes the best sense in the overall context of Paul’s writings. Within these writings, whenever Paul uses the term “infants” he uses it to mean something negative: it refers to people who are immature, ignorant, and not ready to face the realities of life. It does not at all seem to be the kind of term Paul would use to describe himself when trying to show that he could have acted with authority as an apostle of God.”
I wrote a differing opinion in the previous thread. However, this is the strongest part of the the case for the original having been “gentle”. As I mentioned before, it’s possible to me that Paul simply chose the wrong word when he wrote “infants” or perhaps Paul never expected his letter to be studied to this degree.
Very fascinating stuff and not something that I think can resolved to everyone’s satisfaction.
Given Bart’s observation that the word in question could easily be misheard given it’s place in the sentence and the very real possibility that Paul dictated some of his letters, wouldn’t it be a hoot if Paul’s secretary was the one who wrote down the wrong word when Paul dictated the original letter!
I am very impressed by this presentation. One point is not clear to me. Modern scholars know whether one word is more Pauline than another, or one use of a given word is more Pauline than another use. But did ancient scribes know any of this? Do we know how much scribes knew about such issues? I think this is relevant, it affects the probability of changing a word because it is or is not Pauline.
There is no way of knowing directly — since we don’t have any scribes who tell us what they know or not — but it is usually assumed that if a scribe has been copying Paul’s letters he is used to seeing some words fairly regularly and realizes when an unusual word crops up. Plus, these scribes were not just acting as kinds of human copying machines; they were deep students of Scripture themselves, and knew what the texts said (since they were so important to their lives). And so scribes then were kind of like Bible scholars now. If you mention to a NT scholar that Paul speaks of “infants,” they will have a couple of passages immediately come to mind.
Mind blowing endeavour. One could lose one’s eyes too in such heroic effort. I always thought nothing could be similar to the centuries of rabbinical endless arguments over each little corner of the HB .
I stand now corrected! NT Textual criticism proves to be just as exhaustive and exhausting.
In Paul’s case, since we know for certain which works he authored, revealing the exact words he wrote seems the closest one can get to witnessing Paul ourselves.
It seems to be different with the Gospels, though. There the search is for the original words of an anonymous writer, one who most likely did not witness Jesus, and whose ( now lost) original work has been visited by armies of scribes. Whose ” original” words are we looking for?
Infants vs gentle: tricky indeed
Are you suggesting that
1.Paul wrote ” gentle”
2. A scribe, for whatever reason, changed it to ” infants”. This new version was adopted by other scribes.
3. But then, it was turned back to ” gentle”.
4. Today we see both versions, with ” gentle” appearing to be the most common.
( at the end of paragraph 4 , I am sure you meant ” infants”)
Yes, pretty much — except 3. is not quite what I”m saying. I’m not saying that scribes necessarily “changed it back” but that once a scribe changed “gentle” to “infants” then there were two types of manuscripts in circulation, one with one word and one with another. And scribes copied *both* kinds of manuscripts so both readings were perpectuate. It is certainly possible that later scribes who knew Paul’s writings well came to the word and assumed that whne they read “infants” it was *supposed* to say “gentle” and then “changed it back.” In fact, it seems likely they may have. But that’s not necessarily the case. What is necessarily the case is that two forms of the text were *both* in circulation.
Although I sometimes still have anxiety about the possibility of eternal torment in hell, my considered opinion is that a perfectly good and loving God would not do that. Even acknowledging that God is also perfectly just leads me to conclude that the worst case possibility is total annihilation, perhaps following a temporary period of severe but proportional punishment. How could a just God punish someone without limit for a limited offense by a limited creature?
Your book “The Invention of Heaven and Hell” has definitely helped me. I can’t recall for sure but doesn’t Paul say somewhere something like the wages of sin is death? His implication seems to be that anything short of perfect sinlessness deserves infinite punishment. Or maybe Paul simply meant that death, ie, annihilation, is itself the ultimate punishment?
Is something like this a common idea in the OT? Did references to “death” as the ultimate just punishment for any sort of sin come to be interpreted as “hell” (in Christianity)? That seems like an awfully big leap. Maybe the “Greek” belief in an immortal soul made annihilation impossible and necessitated the substitution of hell as the ultimate punishment?
When Paul says the wages of sin is death he means that starting with Adam,the reason people die is because sin ahs come into the world. He’s not referring to what happens *after* death.
Ok, but I thought neither the views of Paul nor the OT supposed that there is a hell of eternal torment. Isn’t death the only punishment for sin that remains—or, perhaps, going a step beyond death, eternal annihilation with or without a prior resurrection of the body?
My thought process is that Christianity somehow transformed a more or less “common sense” view that the ultimate punishment for sin is simple death to the view of hell and eternal torment being the ultimate punishment. And it struck me that the “Greek” idea of an immortal soul might have “necessitated” hell. An immortal soul is good news for the saved but a disaster for the damned—who don’t simply die but are tortured eternally. That’s the downside risk of having an immortal soul.
Of course God, being almighty, could always choose to also annihilate an immortal soul.
But maybe I’m oversimplifying things to speculate that there’s a fairly simple line of development from the OT to Paul to the invention of hell?
Not sure if you’ve seen my book Heaven and Hell, but that’s what I talk about there if you’re interested.
Once I was asked what I would say, as a Catholic, to someone who was extremely anxious about possibly going to hell.
My tongue in cheek response was that going to hell was kind of like trying to buy a yacht—if you had to ask how much a yacht cost then you couldn’t afford it.
I intended that to be comforting but now I’m not so sure that it couldn’t be interpreted as just the opposite.
Maybe a better analogy would be that if you’re worried about whether you’re crazy (or narcissistic) then by definition you aren’t crazy ( or narcissistic).
Or if you’re afraid you’re losing your memory then you can be sure you haven’t lost it—at least not yet.
Do you think these analogies might work in providing comfort or are they too ambiguous?
Depends on your theology. Many Christians would argue that however much you were worried about it, if you didn’t do the right things (however those Xns are deciding that — e.g., believing in Christ/ being baptized/ living a good life/ going to the right church/ supporting the right social agenda, whatever), then you were damned, whatever your worries were/are.
Ok, but I’m thinking of it as a tongue in cheek response based on a theology that God isn’t looking for reasons to send us to hell and that anyone who worries about hell is probably trying hard enough to meet divine expectations that s/he need not worry too much that a loving God would damn them. A loving God is looking for reasons to save people.
Just like a person who worries about losing her memory still has enough of a memory left to worry about losing it in the first place. So a person who worries about hell has enough “good” in her for God to save her.
“Now, you might think that this pattern of correction would suggest that ÊPIOI (gentle) was the original reading, because it is what scribes typically were correcting the text to read. But actually this evidence points in the *opposite* direction.”
Does this really point in the opposite direction? If it’s accepted the ÊPIOI/NÊPIOI error was introduced unintentionally then the direction of change of the later scribes indicates what the “intentional” choice would have been. And the intentional choice would more likely be the original authors choice.
I’m glad you came down finally on the side you did. It seems to me to be too simple a metaphor to have Paul mixing it confusingly. Always preferring the more difficult reading would presumably lead us astray in some percentage of cases. And since we know that the earliest mss were more likely to have accidental changes, I can fully believe that an early copyist — oops — doubled the n, changed it to nepioi, and left the gentle/infantile mess for everyone after him. But, as you say, we cannot KNOW that.
Thank you, Bart. Concerning verses with textual variations and overall confusion for me, have you worked much on Matthew 11:12? Perhaps you already posted on all the debates about it? Cheers, James
It’s a very strange and difficult verse, but I do not know of there being any textual changes of it in the surviving manuscripts.
Thank you, Bart. For reference, I will copy and past my original question and then your reply:
Me: “Concerning verses with textual variations and overall confusion for me, have you worked much on Matthew 11:12?”
BDErman: “It’s a very strange and difficult verse, but I do not know of there being any textual changes of it in the surviving manuscripts.”
Therefore, Matthew 11:12 has difficulties with translation and interpretation while none of these problems involve any disputes of textual variations.
That’s right.
Thank you Dr Ehrman, I have thoroughly enjoyed this thread of analysis!
You wouldn’t have the name and date of the article that Abraham Malherbe wrote?
Or a link? That would be even better.
Thanks
Just google: Malherbe, Gentle as a Nurse.
Before you leave 1 Thess allow me to ask a question about dating. I’ve always heard that the general scholarly view is that this letter is the earliest surviving Christian document. But I’m not sure why. In 1 Thess Paul refers to his history with the Philippians. In his letter to the Philippians he refers to his history with the Thessalonians. With this kind of overlap and Paul ministering to multiple communities what aspect of early dating 1 Thess do you find probative?
Thanks!
It’s a tricky business, but the letters are dated largely on the basis of what Paul says in each one about where he was when (cf. 1 Thess. 3:1ff), what his relations with the reipients was (with Philippians — the back and forths connected with Epaphroditus, e.g.), and what we know from Acts and esp. Paul’s letters of where he was when, and … and other things. I’d say that 1 Thess doesn’t exactly mention Paul’s interactions with Philippian Christians but just that he had a rather nasty time when in town there.