I have been talking about the famous passage in Luke 22:43-44, the account of the so-called “bloody sweat,” where we are told that prior to his arrest, Jesus went into deep agony and began to sweat great drops “as if of blood,” and to be so deeply disturbed that an angel had to come down from heaven to support him.
These verses can be found in a lot of manuscripts, including those used by the translators of the King James Bible, which is why the passage became so familiar to English-Bible readers over the years; but they are absent from many or our earliest and best manuscripts, which is why some modern translations put the verses in a footnote or, more commonly (as in the NRSV), in double brackets, indicating that in the opinion of the translators, the verses were not original (the translators keep them – bracketed — in the text because they knew they are familiar and judge that they are very ancient).
In my previous posts I have given two reasons for thinking that these verses were not originally in the Gospel of Luke (or any other Gospel): (1) They completely disrupt the literary structure of the passage otherwise, a structure known as a chiasmus that Luke has specifically implemented from the passage by radically changing his exemplar, the Gospel of Mark; and (2) They embody a view precisely contrary to the one Luke lays out otherwise, both in this account and in the passion narrative as a whole, that Jesus went to his death calm and in control, without experiencing any serious agony or grief, knowing that God was on his side all along and choosing to go along with his crucifixion in order to do God’s will.
Those two arguments are known to textual scholars as types of “intrinsic probability.” That is a technical term that refers to a certain kind of evidence for solving a textual problem, evidence that asks, “What is an author intrinsically more likely to have written”? Is he likely to have written verses that run counter to the literary structure he has designed for a passage? Is he likely to have written verses that appear to contradict the themes that he otherwise goes to such trouble to develop in his account? The answer in both cases is obviously “no.” This is not a certainty of course; it is only highly likely. And so scholars talk about these precisely as intrinsic probabilities. On those grounds, it appears that the verses were added to Luke’s account by later scribes.
Another entirely different set of probabilities, based on a completely different set of questions, also needs to be considered. This is the question…
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Have any Christians suggested that Jesus was fully God (from all eternity); but *because* he was God, and was *omnipotent*, he could choose to incarnate as a human and – for a planned period of time – *forget* that he was God and experience everything a normal human would? And then, retain the memory of it when he reverted to his true identity?
I don’t believe that happened. But as I see it, it’s the only way around this conundrum: How can a Being be considered all-powerful if there are *things he can’t do*? Such as, have a real, first-person experience of suffering?
Yes indeed, this is a classical and very important view known as a “kenotic” Christology (from the Greek word, KENOSIS, that means “emptying”: Christ emptied himself of his divine prerogatives when he became a human). Maybe I’ll post on it!
so in other words god has an “on/off switch” built into his essence?
I wish I knew…
if a god has “emptied” himself , is he in some sense disabled?
God the Son is, in a sense.
Just wanted to say that I’m really enjoying the recent posts.
If “DOKEO” is the root of the word “docetic”, how should we pronounce the later?
When it comes into English, the “c” takes the “s” sound.
Your birthday is coming up!
I bet instead of cards, gifts from us, you would prefer donations to the blog for charity, right 🙂 ?
Yes please!
Well, the passage was not added by a docetist, but by someone who thought Jesus was human and could suffer. This is what they wanted the readers/hearers to know. Luke has a kind of docetic view in this Gospel, right ( other than the bloody sweat)?
See today’s post!
Dear Dr. Ehrman,
Thank you for these recent posts. Wondering if you were inspired to share these perspectives as a result of this recent piece, which argues against your position?
Warm regards
http://rosetta.reltech.org/TC/v19/TC-2014-Blumell.pdf
Nope, haven’t seen it!
It was an interesting article that appeared recently in the Journal of Biblical Textual Criticism. The author argues that Luke 22:43-44 were more likely deliberately excised from Luke rather than interpolated. He takes issue with your chiastic reading, and then points out that contrary to being “imperturbable” (the word you use to describe Luke’s Jesus in “Text and Interpretation”), Jesus appears weeping over Jerusalem in Luke and he entreats the Father to “remove this cup” (v. 42)—a statement that shows some anxiety about his impending fate. The author also cites scholars who have pointed out reasons they believe that the traditional “anti-doceti”c argument needs to be reconsidered.
Anyway, I find your arguments compelling, but wondered if you had seen this piece and were, in part, responding to these criticisms.
All the best
Haven’t read it yet! But Jesus weeping over Jerusalem isn’t anything like him being in deep agony over his death…
Another good series of posts. I remain impressed by your extensive productivity of really interesting and helpful posts. I follow numerous websites on Christianity and no one blogs as much and as extensively as you. Thanks.
hello bart
one thing which i dont understand about these christians ancient manuscript that scribes could change anything he wants in the text , but he does not get caught and his alteration become part of the book get carried by others and nobody notice anything this is strange you cant do that with koran . please explain how this happened
I”m not sure what you’re puzzled by. Every ancient book from Greek and Roman antiquity suffered the same fate at the hands of copyists.
hello bart
i have noticed you before that you dont like to answer me twice , but i beg you to make an exception for this question . to make it clear for you about scribes changing the text lets take the ending of mark as an example . the scribe who added 9 verses in the gospel how come nobody who is familiar with the gospel when he read it posed asked himself what a minute these ending is new . did you see my point ?
thank you
We don’t know that nobody said that. Many people may have said it.
To the contrary Mhamed, textual scholars of Koranic Arabic can demonstrate conclusively that the text has been edited and redacted by multiple hands. One example is the presence in parts of the text of Persian loan words; completely anachronistic in the Arabic of Mohammad’s time but reflecting the Arabic of the 9th and 10th centuries.
Understandable that such scholarship is not so well known as Biblical scholarship. There are frequently substantial penalties incurred by such scholars. But scholarship continues.
which scholars are you talking about name some for me